Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test result should the LPN/LVN monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct laboratory test result that the LPN/LVN should monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose of heparin therapy is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test is specifically used to monitor heparin therapy, ensuring that the dose administered is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring aPTT helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation by maintaining the appropriate anticoagulant effect of heparin. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is not a direct indicator of heparin's therapeutic effect and is not used to monitor heparin therapy.

2. The client is being ambulated due to activity intolerance caused by bacterial endocarditis. How can the nurse determine that the client is best tolerating ambulation?

• A. Mild dyspnea after walking 10 feet
• B. Minimal chest pain rated 1 on a 1-to-10 pain scale
• C. Pulse rate that increases from 68 to 94 beats per minute
• D. Blood pressure that increases from 114/82 to 118/86 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A slight increase in blood pressure without significant symptoms indicates that the client is tolerating the activity. In this scenario, a mild increase in blood pressure without other symptoms is a positive sign of tolerance to ambulation despite the underlying condition of bacterial endocarditis. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of tolerance to ambulation in this case. Mild dyspnea after walking a short distance, minimal chest pain, and an increase in pulse rate are common signs that the activity might not be well-tolerated by the client with a history of bacterial endocarditis.

3. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Increase your intake of folic acid.
• D. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing folic acid intake is crucial when taking methotrexate because the medication can lead to folic acid deficiency. Folic acid supplementation helps counteract this deficiency and reduces the risk of adverse effects associated with methotrexate therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding dairy products is not specifically necessary for methotrexate therapy. Methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to methotrexate use.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing digoxin toxicity?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia is a hallmark sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart conditions, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia. Bradycardia occurs due to the drug's effect on slowing down the heart rate excessively. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to visual disturbances caused by digoxin, but it is not a defining sign of toxicity. Dry cough (Choice D) is not a recognized symptom of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize the early signs of digoxin toxicity to prevent serious complications and provide appropriate interventions promptly.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.

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