Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test result should the LPN/LVN monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct laboratory test result that the LPN/LVN should monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose of heparin therapy is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test is specifically used to monitor heparin therapy, ensuring that the dose administered is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring aPTT helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation by maintaining the appropriate anticoagulant effect of heparin. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is not a direct indicator of heparin's therapeutic effect and is not used to monitor heparin therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock.
• B. Shake the inhaler well before use.
• C. Rinse your mouth with water after each use.
• D. Use the inhaler while lying down.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is crucial as it helps ensure proper mixing of the medication, which is essential for effective delivery of the drug to the lungs. This step is important for optimal therapeutic effects of albuterol inhalation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock without specifying a maximum number of doses can lead to overuse. Rinsing the mouth with water after each use is typically advised for inhaled corticosteroids to reduce the risk of oral thrush, not for albuterol. Using the inhaler while lying down is not recommended as it may lead to improper medication delivery to the lungs.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to ensure correct use?

• A. Inhale deeply and slowly after activating the MDI.
• B. Hold the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication.
• C. Rinse the mouth immediately after using the MDI.
• D. Exhale fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inhaling deeply and slowly after activating the MDI is the correct instruction to ensure effective delivery of the medication to the lungs. This technique helps the medication reach the lower airways where it can be most beneficial in managing COPD symptoms. Inhaling too quickly or not deeply enough may result in improper drug delivery and reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) may not be necessary and could cause discomfort without additional benefits. Rinsing the mouth immediately after using the MDI (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Exhaling fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth (Choice D) is not ideal as it may result in inadequate medication delivery to the lungs.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, which increases the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious implications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels while on furosemide to prevent complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because furosemide leads to potassium loss, not retention. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

5. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.

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