Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test result should the LPN/LVN monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct laboratory test result that the LPN/LVN should monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose of heparin therapy is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test is specifically used to monitor heparin therapy, ensuring that the dose administered is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring aPTT helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation by maintaining the appropriate anticoagulant effect of heparin. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is not a direct indicator of heparin's therapeutic effect and is not used to monitor heparin therapy.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, which increases the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious implications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels while on furosemide to prevent complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because furosemide leads to potassium loss, not retention. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

3. A client is being taught about the use of an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Use the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock.
• B. Shake the inhaler well before use.
• C. Rinse your mouth with water after each use.
• D. Use the inhaler while lying down.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is a crucial step in ensuring proper medication delivery. This action helps disperse the medication evenly within the device, optimizing the effectiveness of each dose. It ensures that the client receives the intended amount of medication. The other options are incorrect: Option A suggests a fixed time interval for inhaler use, which may not be suitable for all clients and can lead to overuse. Option C, rinsing the mouth, is more relevant for corticosteroid inhalers to prevent oral thrush. Option D, using the inhaler while lying down, is not recommended as it may lead to improper drug delivery and is not the correct position for inhaler use.

4. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important for the healthcare professional to follow up on?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.03
• B. Frothy, tea-colored urine
• C. Clay-colored stools
• D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are indicative of pancreatitis, a serious condition that can manifest with jaundice. Timely follow-up is crucial to manage pancreatitis and its complications effectively in a jaundiced client. Choices A, B, and C are less critical in this scenario. Urine specific gravity within normal range, frothy tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools can be associated with various conditions but are not directly indicative of pancreatitis, which is the most concerning condition associated with jaundice.

5. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

• A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

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