ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test result should the LPN/LVN monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct laboratory test result that the LPN/LVN should monitor to ensure the client is receiving a therapeutic dose of heparin therapy is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test is specifically used to monitor heparin therapy, ensuring that the dose administered is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring aPTT helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation by maintaining the appropriate anticoagulant effect of heparin. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is not a direct indicator of heparin's therapeutic effect and is not used to monitor heparin therapy.
2. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'
- A. A higher dosage
- B. Once-a-week dosing
- C. A lower dosage
- D. A different drug
Correct answer: C
Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.
3. A client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of protein-rich foods.
- B. Decrease your intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
- C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, decreasing the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is essential as impaired kidney function can lead to difficulty in excreting phosphorus, causing an imbalance. This can result in bone and heart complications. Therefore, educating the client to reduce phosphorus intake is crucial for managing the disease and preventing further complications. Option A is incorrect because excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Option C is not directly related to the management of chronic kidney disease. Option D is also incorrect as potassium intake may need to be limited in certain stages of kidney disease.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform a routine abdominal assessment for a client. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Perform palpation before auscultation
- B. Perform percussion before auscultation
- C. Perform palpation after auscultation
- D. Perform inspection after auscultation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform palpation after auscultation. When conducting an abdominal assessment, the correct sequence is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and then palpation. Inspecting the abdomen allows the nurse to observe any visible abnormalities, followed by listening for bowel sounds during auscultation. Percussion helps assess the density of abdominal contents before palpation for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because palpation should always come last in the sequence of an abdominal assessment.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just undergone a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Hoarse voice.
- B. Difficulty swallowing.
- C. Numbness and tingling around the mouth.
- D. Sore throat.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can occur due to inadvertent injury or removal of the parathyroid glands during the thyroidectomy, leading to decreased calcium levels. As a result, the client may experience symptoms such as numbness, tingling, muscle cramps, or spasms. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent severe complications like tetany or seizures. Therefore, the healthcare provider should address numbness and tingling around the mouth immediately to prevent further deterioration of calcium levels and potential serious outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with immediate post-thyroidectomy complications and can be addressed after ensuring the client's calcium levels are stable.
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