ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Questions
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance associated with furosemide use due to its diuretic effect, which can lead to potassium loss. It is crucial to report hypokalemia promptly to the provider as it can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are essential in patients taking furosemide to prevent adverse effects related to electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings to report in a client prescribed furosemide. Weight gain is not typically associated with furosemide use, a dry cough is more commonly linked to ACE inhibitors, and increased appetite is not a common adverse effect of furosemide.
2. When reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease prescribed a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet, which food item should the nurse advise the client to choose?
- A. Whole milk
- B. Grilled salmon
- C. Fried chicken
- D. Bacon and eggs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Grilled salmon is the correct choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet because it is low in saturated fat and high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. Whole milk, fried chicken, and bacon and eggs are higher in saturated fats and cholesterol, making them less suitable choices for this client. Whole milk is high in saturated fat, while fried chicken and bacon and eggs are sources of both saturated fat and cholesterol, which can negatively impact heart health in clients with coronary artery disease.
3. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction has a new activity prescription allowing the client to have bathroom privileges. As the client stands and begins to walk, the client begins to complain of chest pain. The nurse should take which action?
- A. Assist the client to get back into bed.
- B. Report the chest pain episode to the healthcare provider.
- C. Tell the client to stand still and take the client's blood pressure.
- D. Give a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet and assist the client to the bathroom.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with myocardial infarction experiencing chest pain during activity, the priority action is to stop the activity immediately to reduce the heart's workload and oxygen demand. Assisting the client back to bed helps in reducing stress on the heart and can prevent worsening of the condition. Reporting the chest pain episode to the healthcare provider is important but should not delay taking immediate action to alleviate symptoms. Taking the client's blood pressure and administering nitroglycerin are secondary actions after ensuring the client's safety and comfort. Therefore, the correct action is to assist the client back into bed.
4. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.
5. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?
- A. Serum troponin
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.
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