Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

• A. Confusion
• B. Thirst
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Shakiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client about the use of prednisone. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It should not be stopped abruptly
• B. It may cause weight gain
• C. It has no side effects
• D. Take it regularly regardless of symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone can cause weight gain and other side effects, so clients should be informed about these potential risks. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should not be stopped abruptly to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because prednisone can have various side effects. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone is usually prescribed with specific dosing instructions and should not be taken irregularly or only when symptoms occur.

3. A nurse is developing discharge care plans for a client who has osteoporosis. To prevent injury, the nurse should instruct the client to:

• A. Perform weight-bearing exercises
• B. Avoid crossing the legs beyond the midline
• C. Avoid sitting in one position for prolonged periods
• D. Splint the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises strengthen bones and help prevent fractures, which is crucial for clients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline and avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods are general recommendations for preventing musculoskeletal issues but are not specific to osteoporosis. Splinting the affected area is not a standard practice for managing osteoporosis and preventing fractures.

4. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?

• A. Respiratory rate of 12/min
• B. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
• C. Urine output 40 mL/hr
• D. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diminished deep tendon reflexes are a sign of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to decreased reflexes. Respiratory rate of 12/min, urine output 40 mL/hr, and systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg are not specific findings of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory depression, oliguria, and hypotension are more concerning signs that require immediate attention.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to transfer a client from a chair to the bed. The client can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. Which device should the healthcare provider use?

• A. A wheelchair
• B. A stand-assist lift
• C. A transfer belt
• D. A slide board

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stand-assist lift is the most suitable device for transferring a client who can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. This device provides support and assistance for the client to stand up and transfer safely. Choice A, a wheelchair, is not designed for this purpose and is used for mobility. Choice C, a transfer belt, is helpful for providing stability during transfers but may not be sufficient for a client with partial weight-bearing. Choice D, a slide board, is more suitable for transferring clients who are unable to bear weight and need assistance for lateral transfers.

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