Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in an acute care facility is caring for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for constipation?

• A. Regular fluid intake
• B. Urge suppression
• C. Increased physical activity
• D. Adequate dietary fiber

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urge suppression can lead to constipation by delaying bowel movements and causing fecal impaction, especially in postoperative patients. Regular fluid intake (choice A) is important to prevent constipation by maintaining hydration and aiding in bowel movements. Increased physical activity (choice C) helps stimulate bowel function and prevent constipation. Adequate dietary fiber (choice D) is essential for promoting healthy bowel movements and preventing constipation. However, urge suppression (choice B) is the behavior that directly contributes to constipation in this scenario.

2. When teaching a client about the correct use of a cane, what should the nurse include?

• A. Ensure the cane has a rubber cap
• B. Hold the cane on the stronger side
• C. Flex the elbow slightly when using the cane
• D. Use a quad cane for increased support

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When using a cane, it should be held on the stronger side to provide optimal support and stability. This positioning allows the cane to bear weight effectively and helps in improving balance. Option A about ensuring the cane has a rubber cap is important for preventing slipping but is not directly related to the correct use of the cane. Option C, flexing the elbow slightly, is a general guideline and may vary depending on the individual's height and the type of cane being used. Option D suggesting the use of a quad cane for increased support is not necessary if a standard cane is sufficient for the client's needs.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Improved lung sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

4. A nurse is teaching postoperative care to the parents of a toddler following a cleft palate repair. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. Provide an orthodontic pacifier for comfort
• B. Offer fluids using a straw
• C. Cleanse the suture line with a cotton-tip swab
• D. Remove elbow splints periodically to perform range of motion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elbow splints are utilized to prevent the child from touching the surgical site. However, it is essential to remove them periodically to conduct range-of-motion exercises to prevent joint stiffness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because providing an orthodontic pacifier, offering fluids using a straw, and cleansing the suture line with a cotton-tip swab are not directly related to postoperative care following a cleft palate repair.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

Similar Questions