ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client in active labor is irritable, reports the urge to have a bowel movement, vomits, and states, 'I've had enough. I can't do this anymore.' Which of the following stages of labor is the client experiencing?
- A. Second stage
- B. Fourth stage
- C. Transition phase
- D. Latent phase
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client in active labor displaying irritability, the urge to have a bowel movement, nausea, vomiting, and expressing frustration indicates that they are in the transition phase of labor. This phase typically occurs just before entering the second stage of labor, marked by intense contractions and cervical dilation from 8 to 10 centimeters. During this phase, the client may feel overwhelmed, exhausted, and may express a sense of losing control. It is a crucial phase indicating that the client is close to delivering the baby. Choice A, the second stage of labor, is characterized by complete cervical dilation and the birth of the baby, not the symptoms described in the scenario. Choice B, the fourth stage, is the period following the delivery of the placenta, not the phase before giving birth. Choice D, the latent phase, is the early phase of labor where contractions are mild and occur at irregular intervals, not the phase described in the scenario.
2. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?
- A. Peanut butter
- B. Potatoes
- C. Apple juice
- D. Broccoli
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.
3. A client in a prenatal clinic is pregnant and experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. This is due to an increase in blood volume.
- B. This is due to pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm.
- C. This is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava.
- D. This is due to increased cardiac output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maternal hypotension during pregnancy is often caused by the weight of the uterus pressing on the vena cava when the client is lying on her back, which reduces blood flow to the heart. This compression can lead to a decrease in blood pressure and subsequent symptoms of hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because an increase in blood volume typically leads to increased blood pressure rather than hypotension. Choice B is incorrect as pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm is not a common cause of maternal hypotension. Choice D is incorrect because increased cardiac output would not directly cause maternal hypotension.
4. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?
- A. Check the client's temperature.
- B. Observe for uterine contractions.
- C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
- D. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.
5. In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)
- A. Client has delivered one newborn at term
- B. Client has experienced no preterm labor
- C. Client has had two prior pregnancies
- D. ALL OF THE ABOVE - has one living child
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's health record data is interpreted as follows: G3 (gravida 3 - total number of pregnancies), T1 (term births - number of full-term deliveries), P0 (preterm births - number of preterm deliveries), A1 (abortions/miscarriages - total number of miscarriages or abortions), L1 (living children - total number of living children). Therefore, the client has had three pregnancies, one full-term delivery, no preterm labor, one miscarriage/abortion, and one living child. The correct interpretation is that the client has delivered one newborn at term, experienced no preterm labor, had two prior pregnancies, and has one living child. Therefore, choice D is correct. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide a comprehensive interpretation of all aspects of the client's health record data.
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