a client has been prescribed enoxaparin which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding self administration
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A client has been prescribed enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding self-administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to pinch the skin and inject at a 45-degree angle when administering enoxaparin. This technique helps ensure proper administration of the medication. Massaging the injection site after administering is unnecessary and could increase the risk of bleeding. Administering at a 90-degree angle is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Rotating injection sites is important to prevent tissue damage and irritation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: 1 cm of water in the water seal chamber is insufficient to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube. The water seal chamber typically requires a water level of 2 cm. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations (choice A) is an expected finding indicating proper functioning. Having the drainage collection chamber 1/3 full (choice B) is within the normal range. A suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O (choice D) is an appropriate level for chest tube drainage.

3. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

4. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). Vitamin B6 is often used to treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. It is considered safe for use in pregnant clients. Digoxin (Choice A) is a medication used for heart conditions, not for hyperemesis gravidarum. Calcium gluconate (Choice B) is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. Propranolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and anxiety, not for hyperemesis gravidarum.

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