Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is admitting a client who has meningococcal meningitis. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Initiate droplet precautions
• B. Start intravenous antibiotics
• C. Perform a complete assessment
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first priority when admitting a client with meningococcal meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. This is essential to prevent the transmission of the infection to others, as meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious through respiratory droplets. Starting intravenous antibiotics or performing a complete assessment can follow, but the immediate concern is to implement infection control measures. Notifying the healthcare provider should also be done but is not the first action to take in this situation.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 4-month-old infant. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare professional use?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Deltoid
• C. Dorsogluteal
• D. Vastus lateralis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants under 1 year of age because it is well developed and easily accessible compared to other muscle groups. The ventrogluteal and deltoid sites are not typically used for infants due to muscle development and size. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for infants or young children due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Shallow breathing
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Warm, dry skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which finding indicates the need for hemodialysis?

• A. BUN 14 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine 5 mg/dL
• D. Serum calcium 9 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates the need for hemodialysis to help filter waste products from the blood. Elevated creatinine levels suggest impaired kidney function and the inability to effectively filter waste from the body. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease.

5. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Atropine
• D. Diazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

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