a client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is admitted to labor and delivery what question should the nurse ask
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is admitted to labor and delivery. What question should the nurse ask?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is 'Do you have any active lesions?' This is crucial because active herpes lesions may necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal infection. Choice B, 'Have your membranes ruptured?' is related to assessing for the rupture of membranes, not specific to the client's herpes infection. Choice C, 'How far apart are your contractions?' is related to monitoring labor progress. Choice D, 'Are you positive for beta strep?' is related to group B streptococcus screening, which is important but not the priority in this scenario.

2. While caring for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to use the PCA pump before activities like dressing changes, which are likely to cause pain, to ensure effective pain management. Monitoring the client's respiratory status (Choice B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing oxygen therapy (Choice C) is not a routine intervention for all clients on PCA unless specifically indicated. Ensuring the PCA pump is functioning properly (Choice D) is essential, but encouraging the client to use the PCA before painful activities takes precedence to manage pain effectively.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking lisinopril should avoid potassium-rich foods because ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels, potentially leading to hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. Clients should notify their doctor if they develop a cough as it can indicate a potential side effect of lisinopril. Avoiding salt substitutes is important as they may contain potassium chloride, which can also raise potassium levels. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential when taking an antihypertensive medication like lisinopril.

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