ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is admitted to labor and delivery. What question should the nurse ask?
- A. Do you have any active lesions?
- B. Have your membranes ruptured?
- C. How far apart are your contractions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is 'Do you have any active lesions?' This is crucial because active herpes lesions may necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal infection. Choice B, 'Have your membranes ruptured?' is related to assessing for the rupture of membranes, not specific to the client's herpes infection. Choice C, 'How far apart are your contractions?' is related to monitoring labor progress. Choice D, 'Are you positive for beta strep?' is related to group B streptococcus screening, which is important but not the priority in this scenario.
2. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following instructions is appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Assist the client to a supine position
- C. Perform Glasgow Coma Scale assessment every 24 hours
- D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client’s family
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Initiate droplet precautions.' Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions to prevent the spread of infection, as the bacteria can be transmitted through respiratory secretions. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a supine position is not specific to the care of a client with bacterial meningitis and may not be appropriate for all clients. Choice C is incorrect because while performing Glasgow Coma Scale assessments is important in managing clients with neurological conditions, it is not directly related to preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect because recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family is not a standard precautionary measure for preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Edema
- B. Dry mucous membranes
- C. Weight gain
- D. Increased urination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes are a classic sign of dehydration. In dehydration, the body loses more water than it takes in, leading to dryness of mucous membranes like the mouth and throat. Edema (choice A) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, which is not a typical sign of dehydration. Weight gain (choice C) is also not a common sign of dehydration; in fact, dehydration usually leads to weight loss. Increased urination (choice D) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or diuretic use, not dehydration.
4. A charge nurse is planning care for a group of patients on a med-surg unit. What task should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?
- A. Measure hourly urinary output for the postoperative patient.
- B. Administer medications to stable patients.
- C. Reinforce patient education.
- D. Initiate a care plan for a new patient.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because assistive personnel can be assigned to measure and document urinary output, a routine task within their scope of practice. Administering medications (choice B) requires a higher level of training and should be done by licensed nurses. Reinforcing patient education (choice C) involves providing information and ensuring patient understanding, which is typically done by licensed healthcare providers. Initiating a care plan (choice D) involves critical thinking and assessment skills, which are beyond the scope of practice for assistive personnel.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?
- A. Confusion
- B. Thirst
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Shakiness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.
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