Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is admitting a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Iron 90 mcg/dl.
• B. Prealbumin 10 mcg/dl.
• C. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dl.
• D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dl.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Low prealbumin levels are indicative of malnutrition, which is common in individuals with anorexia nervosa. Iron levels, serum creatinine, and calcium levels are not typically affected in the same way by anorexia nervosa, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?

• A. Hypoglycemia: Sweating, trembling; Hyperglycemia: Frequent urination, thirst
• B. Hypoglycemia: Increased thirst; Hyperglycemia: Sweating, confusion
• C. Hypoglycemia: Increased appetite; Hyperglycemia: Blurred vision
• D. Hypoglycemia: Dizziness; Hyperglycemia: Low blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

4. A client with IV fluids has developed redness and warmth at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Apply a cold compress to the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Monitor the IV site for signs of infection
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to improve circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, it is indicative of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. The next step for the nurse should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a cold compress may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Monitoring for infection is important, but in this case, the presence of redness and warmth suggests phlebitis, not infection. Increasing the IV flow rate can exacerbate the inflammation and should be avoided.

5. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following an open radical prostatectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Perform Kegel exercises daily
• B. Perform light exercise for 3 hours each day
• C. Avoid bathing for 3 days
• D. Avoid sitting in a chair for more than 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform Kegel exercises daily. After a radical prostatectomy, Kegel exercises are beneficial as they help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, aiding in urinary control and recovery. Choice B is incorrect because recommending 3 hours of light exercise daily may not be suitable immediately postoperatively. Choice C is incorrect as personal hygiene, including bathing, is important for postoperative care. Choice D is incorrect because sitting for more than 2 hours does not specifically relate to the client's postoperative care needs.

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