ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. When caring for clients in a prenatal clinic, a nurse should report which client's weight gain to the provider?
- A. 1.8 kg (4 lb) weight gain in the first trimester
- B. 3.6 kg (8 lb) weight gain in the first trimester
- C. 6.8 kg (15 lb) weight gain in the second trimester
- D. 11.3 kg (25 lb) weight gain in the third trimester
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight gain of 3.6 kg (8 lb) in the first trimester is excessive and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Excessive weight gain in the first trimester can be a sign of potential issues that need monitoring and intervention to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, C, and D represent weight gains that are within normal ranges for the respective trimesters and do not raise immediate concerns for reporting to the provider.
2. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
- A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
- B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
- C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
- D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.
3. During newborn gestational age assessment, which finding should be recorded as part of this assessment on the newborn?
- A. Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
- B. Anterior fontanel soft and level
- C. Plantar creases cover 2/3 of sole
- D. Vernix caseosa in inguinal creases
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Plantar creases covering 2/3 of the sole is an important physical characteristic used to assess gestational age in a newborn. This finding is significant because as gestational age advances, the plantar creases cover a larger portion of the sole. It is a valuable clue to the healthcare provider in determining the newborn's maturity level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to gestational age assessment. Acrocyanosis and vernix caseosa are common findings in newborns but are not directly used for determining gestational age. The softness and level of the anterior fontanel can provide information about intracranial pressure but are not directly related to gestational age assessment.
4. While observing the electronic fetal heart rate monitor tracing for a client at 40 weeks of gestation in labor, a nurse should suspect a problem with the umbilical cord when she observes which of the following patterns?
- A. Early decelerations
- B. Accelerations
- C. Late decelerations
- D. Variable decelerations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate umbilical cord compression, which is a concern that may arise due to the umbilical cord being compressed during labor. This compression can lead to reduced blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus, necessitating close monitoring and potentially interventions to alleviate the pressure on the cord. Early decelerations are typically benign and mirror the contractions, indicating fetal head compression. Accelerations are reassuring patterns that show a healthy response to fetal movement. Late decelerations are concerning as they suggest uteroplacental insufficiency, indicating potential oxygen deprivation to the fetus.
5. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?
- A. Shortly after giving birth
- B. In the third trimester
- C. Immediately
- D. During the next attempt to get pregnant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.
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