Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
• B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.

2. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client with a surgical wound. Which action should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?

• A. Proceed with the dressing change
• B. Restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field
• C. Continue without concern for minor splashes
• D. Delegate the task to another nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field. Any contamination of the sterile field compromises the aseptic technique and increases the risk of infection for the client. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain the sterility of the field throughout the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because proceeding with the dressing change, continuing without concern for minor splashes, or delegating the task to another nurse would all compromise the sterility of the procedure and increase the risk of infection for the client.

3. A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has GERD. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Rebound tenderness
• C. Atypical chest pain
• D. Vomiting blood

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atypical chest pain. GERD often presents with atypical chest pain due to acid reflux, which can mimic the symptoms of cardiac conditions but is related to the esophagus. Shortness of breath (choice A) is not a typical assessment finding in GERD. Rebound tenderness (choice B) is associated with peritoneal inflammation, not GERD. Vomiting blood (choice D) is a severe symptom that may indicate esophageal damage but is not a common assessment finding in GERD.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place several pillows behind the client’s head
• B. Place the client in a Sims' position
• C. Keep the client’s neck in a midline position
• D. Maintain flexion of the client’s hips at a 90° angle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the client’s neck in a midline position is essential when caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it helps promote optimal blood flow and reduces the risk of further increasing ICP. Placing pillows behind the client’s head (Choice A) may not be recommended as it could potentially increase ICP. Putting the client in a Sims' position (Choice B) and maintaining hip flexion at a 90° angle (Choice D) are not directly related to managing increased ICP and are not the priority interventions in this situation.

5. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Urinary output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.

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