Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
• B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Blood glucose 120 mg/dL
• B. pH 7.32
• C. HCO3 25 mEq/L
• D. PaCO2 48 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pH of 7.32 indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, blood glucose levels are typically elevated, bicarbonate levels are often low, and there is a compensatory respiratory response leading to a decrease in PaCO2. Option A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is within the normal range and not indicative of DKA. Option C is incorrect because an HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L is not typically seen in DKA where bicarbonate levels are usually lower. Option D is incorrect because a PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg would not be expected in DKA; it would typically be lower due to compensatory respiratory alkalosis.

3. A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?

• A. Increase calcium intake
• B. Increase potassium intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Restrict protein intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.

4. A healthcare provider is educating a patient on the use of alendronate. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Take it with food
• B. Take it once a week
• C. It can be taken at bedtime
• D. Monitor for increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take it once a week.' Alendronate is typically taken once a week to treat osteoporosis. It should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning with a full glass of water. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice D is unrelated to alendronate use and not a common side effect associated with this medication.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

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