ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
- B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
- C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
- D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.
2. A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group in a County Jail health clinic. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation?
- A. I steal things because it’s the only way I can keep my mind off my bad marriage
- B. I can’t believe I was accused of something I didn’t do
- C. I don’t want to talk about my feelings right now; we will talk more next time
- D. I think that people should earn money honestly, even though I stole
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because reaction formation occurs when a person expresses the opposite of what they feel. In this case, the client is advocating for honesty, despite their own history of theft. Choice A discusses stealing to distract from a bad marriage, which does not involve expressing the opposite of one's feelings. Choice B focuses on denial, not reaction formation. Choice C involves delaying emotional discussion, which is not related to expressing the opposite of one's true feelings.
3. When caring for a client prescribed azithromycin, what should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Signs of diarrhea
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Serum electrolytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor signs of diarrhea when a client is prescribed azithromycin. Azithromycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, particularly diarrhea. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication and to prevent complications such as dehydration. Monitoring liver function (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), and serum electrolytes (choice D) are not typically indicated specifically for clients prescribed azithromycin unless there are other specific reasons or conditions that warrant such monitoring.
4. A client is experiencing urinary incontinence, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?
- A. Drink large amounts of water before bedtime
- B. Perform Kegel exercises regularly
- C. Limit fiber intake in the diet to avoid bowel irritation
- D. Increase intake of caffeinated and carbonated beverages
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client experiencing urinary incontinence is to perform Kegel exercises regularly. These exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, improving bladder control and reducing urinary incontinence. Option A is incorrect because drinking large amounts of water before bedtime can worsen urinary incontinence by increasing urine production. Option C is incorrect as fiber is important for bowel health and limiting it may not be beneficial for the client. Option D is incorrect as caffeinated and carbonated beverages can irritate the bladder and worsen urinary incontinence, so they should be avoided.
5. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
- B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
- C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
- D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.
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