Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following cataract removal from one eye. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use eye drops to soothe dryness
• B. Avoid rubbing the eye
• C. Sleep on the side of the affected eye
• D. Avoid lying on the affected side

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After cataract surgery, it is essential to avoid lying on the affected side to reduce pressure and promote healing. Sleeping on the side of the affected eye (Choice C) may increase pressure on the eye, leading to complications. While using eye drops to soothe dryness (Choice A) is generally recommended postoperatively, it is not as crucial as avoiding pressure on the eye. Rubbing the eye (Choice B) should be avoided to prevent irritation and potential damage, but it is not as critical as avoiding pressure on the affected eye.

2. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the postpartum unit due to a staffing shortage for the shift. Which of the following client assignments should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NGT set to continuous suction.
• B. A client who has fractured a femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
• C. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
• D. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the LPN can care for stable clients with complex needs, such as managing an NGT set to continuous suction. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with more acute conditions that require a higher level of assessment and intervention, making them unsuitable for delegation to an LPN. Choice B requires prompt evaluation of the shortness of breath in a client with a recent femur fracture, which is beyond the LPN's scope. Choice C involves a head injury and unequal pupils, indicating the need for neurological assessment and close monitoring. Choice D relates to a critically low hemoglobin level and the need for blood transfusion, requiring careful monitoring and potential intervention beyond the LPN's role.

3. What are the key components of a respiratory assessment?

• A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
• B. Inspection, Observation, Auscultation, Percussion
• C. Auscultation, Palpation, Observation, Percussion
• D. Observation, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment involves inspecting the chest for symmetry and signs of distress, palpating for tenderness or abnormal masses, performing percussion to assess underlying tissues, and auscultating lung sounds. Choice B is incorrect as observation is a broad term that can encompass both inspection and palpation. Choice C is incorrect as auscultation is usually performed after inspection and palpation. Choice D is incorrect as observation should be more specific, and auscultation is a key component that is typically done last in a respiratory assessment.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes.
• C. Place the client in the lithotomy position.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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