ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?
- A. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily.
- B. The cord stump will fall off in 5 days.
- C. Contact the provider if the cord stump turns black.
- D. Keep the cord stump dry until it falls off.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This is important to promote natural healing and prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily can actually delay healing and increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as the cord stump typically falls off within 1 to 3 weeks, not in 5 days. Choice C is incorrect because a cord stump turning black is a normal part of the healing process and does not necessarily indicate a problem requiring immediate provider contact.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
- B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
- C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.
3. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?
- A. When the client is hypotensive
- B. When the client is irritable
- C. When the client is flushed
- D. When the client is bradycardic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.
4. Which assessment finding is expected with myxedema?
- A. Increased pulse rate
- B. Decreased temperature
- C. Fine tremors
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Myxedema is characterized by a decreased metabolic rate, leading to manifestations such as decreased temperature. Therefore, the correct assessment finding expected with myxedema is a decreased temperature. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because myxedema typically presents with a decreased pulse rate, not an increased pulse rate, absence of fine tremors (which are more common in hyperthyroidism), and weight gain rather than weight loss.
5. A client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL has a pressure ulcer. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
- B. Consult a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status
- C. Administer a protein supplement
- D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL and a pressure ulcer is to consult a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status. Adequate nutrition is essential for wound healing. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance is important but not the first priority in this situation. Administering a protein supplement can be considered after dietary evaluation. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the primary intervention for addressing a pressure ulcer related to low albumin levels.
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