ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Fluid overload
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.
2. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?
- A. Rabies, cholera, meningitis
- B. Smallpox, anthrax, botulism
- C. Ebola, hepatitis B, tetanus
- D. Tuberculosis, influenza, measles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adults (OA). The provider should identify that which of the following is a risk factor that places OA at an increased risk for developing infections?
- A. Improved circulation
- B. Increased immune function
- C. Lowered immune system function
- D. Dehydration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lowered immune system function.' As individuals age, their immune system tends to weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because improved circulation and increased immune function would typically reduce the risk of infections, while dehydration can impact overall health but is not directly related to immune system function in the context of infection risk.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Remove dirty linens after double-bagging them
- B. Wear a dosimeter badge in the client’s room
- C. Limit visitors to 1 hour per day
- D. Ensure family remains 3 feet away from the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should wear a dosimeter badge to monitor radiation exposure when caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant.
5. A nurse is planning to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth)
- A. 2.6 mL
- B. 2.2 mL
- C. 3.5 mL
- D. 5.0 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct calculation is as follows: The toddler's weight in kg is 13 kg (28.6 lb / 2.2 lb/kg). The total daily dose is 260 mg (20 mg x 13 kg). Therefore, the dose per administration is 130 mg (260 mg / 2). Given the concentration of 250 mg/5 mL, the dose in mL is 2.6 mL (130 mg / (250 mg/5 mL)). Therefore, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choice B, 2.2 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choices C and D, 3.5 mL and 5.0 mL, are also incorrect and do not align with the accurate dosage calculation based on the given scenario.
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