a nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer 1 unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to delay the transfusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) suggests the possibility of an underlying infection or fever, which should be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion to prevent complications. Elevated temperature can indicate an immune response to incompatible blood components, increasing the risk of a transfusion reaction. The other vital signs and lab results provided are within acceptable ranges for administering packed RBCs, making choices A, B, and D less likely to cause a delay in the transfusion.

4. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

5. A nurse is preparing to perform closed intermittent bladder irrigation for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following actions is appropriate by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take before performing a closed intermittent bladder irrigation is to apply sterile gloves. Sterile gloves help maintain asepsis, reduce the risk of infection, and ensure patient safety during the procedure. Aspirating the irrigation solution from the bladder (Choice A) is not a standard step in closed intermittent bladder irrigation. Inserting the tip of the irrigation syringe into the catheter opening (Choice B) can introduce contaminants into the system. Opening the flow clamp to the irrigating fluid infusion tubing (Choice D) should only be done after ensuring all equipment is ready and the nurse is gloved to maintain sterility.

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