Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Fluid overload
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.

2. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. PT and INR
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations
• B. Drainage collection chamber is 1/3 full
• C. 1 cm of water present in the water seal chamber
• D. Suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O

Correct answer: C

Rationale: 1 cm of water in the water seal chamber is insufficient to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube. The water seal chamber typically requires a water level of 2 cm. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations (choice A) is an expected finding indicating proper functioning. Having the drainage collection chamber 1/3 full (choice B) is within the normal range. A suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O (choice D) is an appropriate level for chest tube drainage.

4. A healthcare provider is among the first responders to a mass-casualty incident and does not know what type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is needed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Use basic gloves and a mask.
• B. Choose the highest level of protection equipment available.
• C. Use only respiratory protection.
• D. Ask a colleague for advice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where the type of hazard is unknown, the healthcare provider should choose the highest level of protection equipment available. This helps ensure adequate protection against any potential hazards that may be present. Using only basic gloves and a mask (Choice A) may not provide sufficient protection if the hazard is more severe. Opting for respiratory protection only (Choice C) may leave other areas of the body vulnerable to exposure. While asking a colleague for advice (Choice D) is good practice in general, in urgent situations like mass-casualty incidents with unknown hazards, it is crucial to prioritize immediate protection by selecting the highest level of PPE.

5. A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Keep a padded tongue depressor near the bedside
• B. Place a pillow under the client’s head while in bed during a seizure
• C. Administer diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures
• D. Position the client on their side during a seizure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients who have seizures are at risk for injury and aspiration. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the family to position the client on their side during a seizure to maintain a clear airway. Placing a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended, as it can lead to oral injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client’s head (Choice B) can obstruct the airway and increase the risk of aspiration. Administering diazepam orally (Choice C) is not typically done by family members during a seizure; this is usually prescribed by healthcare providers for specific situations.

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