Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been prescribed oral contraception receives education from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further education?

• A. If I miss one pill, I'll take it as soon as possible
• B. If I miss two pills, I'll double up for two days
• C. If I miss three pills, I'll double up each day until back on schedule
• D. I'll use an alternative form of contraception if I miss more than two pills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct course of action after missing oral contraceptive pills depends on how many pills are missed. If three pills are missed, the client should not 'double up' but rather follow the manufacturer's instructions and use an alternative form of contraception until the next cycle. Taking too many pills at once increases the risk of side effects without restoring contraceptive protection. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate understanding of the correct actions to take after missing a pill or two, emphasizing the importance of not doubling up but following specific guidelines to maintain effectiveness and safety.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?

• A. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes
• B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
• C. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability
• D. Fetal heart rate of 118/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and decreased uterine perfusion. Prolonged contractions may reduce oxygen supply to the fetus, putting it at risk. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. The other options do not raise immediate concerns that would necessitate discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes is within a normal range. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability and a rate of 118/min are both reassuring signs of fetal well-being.

3. A nurse is planning care to prevent complications in a client with immobility. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Massage lower extremities daily to prevent DVT
• B. Remove anti-embolism stockings for 3 hours each day
• C. Limit intake of foods high in calcium to prevent renal calculi
• D. Encourage the client to lie supine to prevent constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing anti-embolism stockings for short periods prevents skin breakdown while ensuring that the stockings remain effective in promoting circulation. Choice A is incorrect because massaging lower extremities daily does not prevent DVT; instead, it may dislodge a clot. Choice C is incorrect as limiting intake of foods high in calcium does not prevent renal calculi; rather, it may help reduce the risk of kidney stones. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to lie supine does not prevent constipation; instead, encouraging mobility and adequate fluid intake can help prevent constipation in immobile clients.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client who has a prescription. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my morning pills with food or milk.
• B. I will weigh myself every day.
• C. I will notify the nurse if I have muscle cramps.
• D. I will limit my intake of fish.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. There is no need to limit fish intake with furosemide, indicating a misunderstanding of dietary restrictions. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of excess water and salt. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions for a client taking furosemide. Taking morning pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, weighing oneself daily helps monitor fluid retention, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps can be important due to potential electrolyte imbalances.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

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