a nurse is caring for a client receiving potassium sparing diuretics which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin to prevent DVT. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject enoxaparin in the lateral abdominal wall. This site is typically recommended for subcutaneous injections of this medication. Expelling air bubbles from prefilled syringes is not necessary and may result in medication loss. Massaging the injection site is contraindicated as it can cause bruising or hematoma formation. Administering NSAIDs for injection site discomfort is unnecessary and not a standard practice.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has schizophrenia and is starting therapy with clozapine. Which of the following is the highest priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that leads to infections. Fever may indicate an underlying infection, a potentially life-threatening complication, and must be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Constipation) is a common side effect of clozapine but is not as urgent as fever. Blurred vision (Choice B) and dry mouth (Choice D) are side effects of clozapine but are not indicative of a life-threatening condition like agranulocytosis.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

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