a nurse is performing a skin assessment on a client who has risk factors for the development of skin cancer the nurse should understand that a suspici
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.

2. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when initiating this medication to assess its effectiveness and potential side effects related to blood pressure regulation. Liver function monitoring is not typically required with lisinopril. While lisinopril can affect potassium levels, it is not the primary parameter to monitor when starting this medication. Heart rate monitoring is not a routine requirement when initiating lisinopril therapy.

4. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

5. A nurse is planning to administer several medications to a client through an NG tube. Which actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering medications through an NG tube is to dissolve crushed tablet medications in 15-30 mL of sterile water. This ensures proper delivery through the NG tube and reduces the risk of clogging. Choice A is incorrect because tap water may contain impurities that can cause complications. Choice B suggests using a higher volume of sterile water than necessary, which may lead to dilution of the medications. Choice D is incorrect as medications should be dissolved to prevent blockages in the NG tube.

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