a nurse is performing a skin assessment on a client who has risk factors for the development of skin cancer the nurse should understand that a suspici
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.

2. A nurse on a rehab unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted patient who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which interprofessional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in assessing and treating swallowing disorders, making them the most appropriate consultant for a patient with difficulty swallowing following a stroke. While other interprofessional team members such as a physical therapist (choice A), social worker (choice C), and respiratory therapist (choice D) may play important roles in the patient's care, the primary focus for swallowing difficulties would be the speech-language pathologist.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal pain. Abdominal pain, often severe, is a hallmark sign of pancreatitis. Other common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and tenderness in the abdomen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing for abdominal pain in a client with suspected pancreatitis.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an influenza vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client is allergic to eggs. The influenza vaccine is contraindicated in individuals with an allergy to eggs because some influenza vaccines are produced using egg-based processes. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for administering the influenza vaccine. A low-grade fever, recent surgery, and corticosteroid therapy are not contraindications for receiving the influenza vaccine.

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