ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:
- A. Scaly and red
- B. Asymmetric with variegated coloring
- C. Firm and rubbery
- D. Brown with a wart-like texture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.
2. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.
3. A nurse is assessing a 1-hour postpartum client and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Take vital signs
- B. Assess lochia
- C. Massage the fundus
- D. Give oxytocin IV bolus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a nurse assesses a 1-hour postpartum client with a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus, it indicates uterine atony. The first action the nurse should take is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which will reduce bleeding and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Taking vital signs, assessing lochia, or administering an oxytocin IV bolus are important interventions but should come after addressing uterine atony through fundal massage.
4. While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?
- A. Client with pleurisy who reports a pain level of 6 out of 10 when coughing
- B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a JP drain
- C. Client 4 hours postoperative with a heart rate of 98 bpm
- D. Client undergoing chemotherapy with an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.
5. A client is experiencing urinary incontinence, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?
- A. Drink large amounts of water before bedtime
- B. Perform Kegel exercises regularly
- C. Limit fiber intake in the diet to avoid bowel irritation
- D. Increase intake of caffeinated and carbonated beverages
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client experiencing urinary incontinence is to perform Kegel exercises regularly. These exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, improving bladder control and reducing urinary incontinence. Option A is incorrect because drinking large amounts of water before bedtime can worsen urinary incontinence by increasing urine production. Option C is incorrect as fiber is important for bowel health and limiting it may not be beneficial for the client. Option D is incorrect as caffeinated and carbonated beverages can irritate the bladder and worsen urinary incontinence, so they should be avoided.
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