Nursing Elites

1. A nurse has been caring for a female client who has bruises on her arms that she explains are a result of physical abuse by her husband. The client states, “I don’t know how much longer I can take this, but I’m afraid he’ll really hurt me if I leave.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Offer to speak to the client’s husband regarding his abusive behavior
• B. Help the client to recognize signs of escalation in abusive behavior
• C. Assist the client in identifying personal behaviors that trigger abuse
• D. Assist the client in reporting the abusive behavior to authorities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assisting the client in reporting the abuse is a critical step in ensuring her safety and initiating legal action to protect her from further harm. Option A is inappropriate as it may escalate the situation and put the client at further risk. Option B focuses on the client recognizing signs of abuse, which is not as urgent as reporting it to authorities. Option C places the responsibility on the client for triggering the abuse, which is victim-blaming and not helpful in this context.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

3. A nurse is planning to discharge a client who has quadriplegia to his home. The nurse suggests that the family might need respite care services. When a family member asks how respite care can help, which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Respite care provides medical support to the client.
• B. Respite care assists with financial planning for the client’s needs.
• C. Respite care provides long-term housing.
• D. Respite care allows the primary caregiver time away from day-to-day care responsibilities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Respite care is designed to give primary caregivers temporary relief from the responsibilities of care, allowing them to take a break. Choice A is incorrect because respite care is not primarily focused on providing medical support to the client. Choice B is incorrect as respite care does not specifically assist with financial planning for the client's needs. Choice C is incorrect as respite care does not provide long-term housing, but rather short-term relief for caregivers.

4. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?

• A. Client with cystic fibrosis who has a thick productive cough and reports thirst
• B. Client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused
• C. Client with diabetes mellitus who has a morning fasting glucose of 185 mg/dL
• D. Client with sickle cell anemia who reports pain 15 minutes after receiving analgesic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should report the client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused to the provider first. Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis may indicate dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, both of which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. The other options indicate important assessments that require intervention but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

5. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

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