ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client is prescribed metronidazole for a bacterial infection. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client?
- A. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
- B. It is safe to take during pregnancy
- C. Monitor for increased appetite
- D. It can cause hair loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.' Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, leading to symptoms like nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption. Choice B is incorrect because metronidazole is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect as metronidazole is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as hair loss is not a common side effect of metronidazole.
2. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Report a decrease in urine output.
- D. Expect swelling in the lower extremities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss, which may cause hypokalemia. Increasing potassium intake can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances due to increased urination. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in urine output could indicate a problem and should be reported immediately. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling in the body, including the lower extremities, so expecting swelling is not appropriate.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Parkinson’s disease and is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to eat thin liquids
- B. Instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing
- C. Give the client large pieces of food
- D. Have the client lie down after meals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with Parkinson’s disease at risk for aspiration is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing. This action helps protect the airway and reduces the risk of aspiration in clients with impaired swallowing, which is common in Parkinson’s disease. Encouraging the client to eat thin liquids (Choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration as they are harder to control during swallowing. Giving the client large pieces of food (Choice C) can also increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Having the client lie down after meals (Choice D) can further increase the risk of aspiration due to the potential for reflux. Therefore, the best action to prevent aspiration in this situation is to instruct the client to tilt their head forward when swallowing.
4. A client who has undergone a cesarean birth is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Limit stair climbing for the first few weeks
- B. Avoid lifting anything heavier than the newborn
- C. Use a pillow to support the abdomen when coughing or sneezing
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After a cesarean birth, it is important for the client to follow specific instructions for optimal recovery. Limiting stair climbing reduces strain on the incision site, aiding in healing (Choice A). Avoiding lifting anything heavier than the newborn prevents stress on the incision, promoting recovery (Choice B). Using a pillow to support the abdomen during coughing or sneezing helps reduce discomfort and protect the incision, preventing sudden movements or strain (Choice C). Therefore, all the options provided are crucial post-cesarean birth instructions to ensure proper healing and recovery. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of post-cesarean care, making Option D the correct answer.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client prescribed amiodarone. Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Serum potassium levels
- C. Blood pressure
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amiodarone is known to potentially affect liver function, potassium levels, and blood pressure. Monitoring all these parameters regularly is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on. Liver function tests are necessary as amiodarone can cause hepatotoxicity. Serum potassium levels should be monitored due to the risk of hypokalemia or hyperkalemia with amiodarone use. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as amiodarone can cause hypotension or hypertension. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all these parameters should be monitored to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important signs of adverse effects.
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