Nursing Elites

1. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which action is the nurse's priority?

• A. Restrain the client
• B. Place the client on their side with their head forward
• C. Perform a neurological assessment
• D. Monitor the client's vitals every 2 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of fluids or secretions. Restraint should never be used during a seizure as it can cause harm to the client. Performing a neurological assessment is important but not the immediate priority during an active seizure. While monitoring vitals is essential, ensuring the client's airway is clear takes precedence.

2. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
• B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart
• B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
• C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
• D. Withhold heparin IV infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to withhold heparin IV infusion. The nurse should withhold heparin if there are signs of complications, such as bleeding, or if there are contraindications to continuing anticoagulation therapy. Positioning the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart helps reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Administering acetaminophen for pain management can be appropriate, but it is not the priority in this situation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications, so it should be avoided.

4. A community health nurse is teaching a group of clients about first aid for different types of wounds. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should apply clean dressings over blood-saturated dressings and hold pressure.
• B. I will rinse the wound with hot water to cleanse it.
• C. I can remove the dressing once the bleeding stops.
• D. I should apply antibiotic ointment directly to the wound.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because applying clean dressings over blood-saturated dressings and holding pressure helps prevent disruption of wound tissue, aiding in the clotting process and controlling bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as rinsing a wound with hot water can cause further tissue damage. Choice C is incorrect as the dressing should not be removed once applied as it can disrupt the formation of a clot. Choice D is incorrect as antibiotic ointment should not be applied directly to the wound during initial first aid.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• B. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, as evidenced by contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. Discontinuing the oxytocin is crucial to prevent fetal distress and uterine rupture. Increasing the IV fluid rate would not address the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin. Applying an internal fetal monitor is not the priority at this moment; first, the oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped to manage the uterine hyperstimulation effectively.

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