Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled to receive chemotherapy for the first time
• B. A client post-appendectomy with diminished bowel sounds
• C. A client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous
• D. A client with burns requiring a sterile dressing change

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous should be assessed first as this may indicate a critical condition, possibly related to severe hypothyroidism. Stupor is a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, suggesting a decline in neurological function that requires immediate evaluation. Choices A, B, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment. While chemotherapy, post-appendectomy complications, and burn care are important, they do not pose the same level of immediate risk as a stuporous client.

2. A nurse on a rehab unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted patient who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which interprofessional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting?

• A. Physical therapist
• B. Speech-language pathologist
• C. Social worker
• D. Respiratory therapist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in assessing and treating swallowing disorders, making them the most appropriate consultant for a patient with difficulty swallowing following a stroke. While other interprofessional team members such as a physical therapist (choice A), social worker (choice C), and respiratory therapist (choice D) may play important roles in the patient's care, the primary focus for swallowing difficulties would be the speech-language pathologist.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?

• A. Table salt
• B. Egg yolks
• C. White wine
• D. Oranges

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Liver function
• C. Serum potassium levels
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when initiating this medication to assess its effectiveness and potential side effects related to blood pressure regulation. Liver function monitoring is not typically required with lisinopril. While lisinopril can affect potassium levels, it is not the primary parameter to monitor when starting this medication. Heart rate monitoring is not a routine requirement when initiating lisinopril therapy.

5. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Urinary output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.

Similar Questions