ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A nurse enters a patient's room and finds the client pulseless. The living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the family.
- B. Begin CPR.
- C. Await further instructions from the provider.
- D. Document the event.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. Even though the living will requests no resuscitation, without a written do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order from the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally bound to initiate CPR to provide life-saving measures until further confirmation is obtained. Notifying the family (Choice A) may cause a delay in providing immediate care. Waiting for further instructions (Choice C) can be time-consuming and compromise patient outcomes. Documenting the event (Choice D) is important but should follow after initiating CPR to ensure patient safety and adherence to protocols.
2. A nurse has provided education to a client regarding prescribed levothyroxine sodium. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding of medication administration?
- A. I should take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- B. I can take the medication at night before bed.
- C. I will stop the medication if I start to feel better.
- D. I will take the medication only when I feel symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach to prevent insomnia and ensure proper absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because taking levothyroxine at night may interfere with sleep and absorption. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can lead to negative health outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because levothyroxine is a daily medication that should be taken consistently, not just when symptoms are present.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain. The client's respiratory rate has decreased from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Flumazenil
- C. Activated charcoal
- D. Aluminum hydroxide
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose, including hydromorphone. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, and a significant decrease in respiratory rate from 16 to 6 breaths per minute indicates respiratory compromise. Naloxone should be administered promptly to reverse the effects of the opioid and restore normal respiratory function. Flumazenil (Choice B) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for gastrointestinal decontamination in cases of overdose with certain substances, but it is not the appropriate intervention for opioid-induced respiratory depression. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and has no role in managing opioid overdose or respiratory depression.
4. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing neutropenia. Which of the following should the nurse include in this client's education?
- A. Track oral temperature weekly
- B. Gardening is a good form of mild exercise
- C. Avoid crowded events
- D. Eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with neutropenia have a weakened immune system, making them susceptible to infections. Avoiding crowded events helps reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens, thereby minimizing the chance of infections. Tracking oral temperature is important for detecting fever early, which is a sign of infection and requires immediate medical attention. While gardening can be a good form of exercise, clients with neutropenia should avoid it due to the risk of exposure to bacteria and fungi present in soil. Eating fresh fruits and vegetables is generally encouraged for overall health but may carry a risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with neutropenia.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?
- A. Dehydration
- B. Urinary incontinence
- C. Poor nutrition
- D. Poor tissue perfusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.
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