Nursing Elites

1. A nurse concludes that the parent of a newborn is not showing positive indications of parent-infant bonding. The parent appears very anxious and nervous when asked to bring the newborn to the other parent. Which of the following actions should the nurse use to promote parent-infant bonding?

• A. Hand the parent the newborn and suggest that they change the diaper.
• B. Ask the parent why they are so anxious and nervous.
• C. Tell the parent that they will grow accustomed to the newborn.
• D. Provide reinforcement about infant care when the parent is present.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing reinforcement about infant care when the parent is present can help alleviate anxiety and promote positive parent-infant bonding. By offering guidance and support while the parent is interacting with the newborn, the nurse can help build the parent's confidence and strengthen the bond between the parent and the infant. Choice A is not ideal as it does not address the parent's anxiety and may increase stress levels. Choice B focuses on the parent's emotions without providing direct support for bonding. Choice C is dismissive and does not offer practical assistance in fostering bonding between the parent and the infant.

2. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Your son may not have been ready for toilet training and should wear training pants.
• B. Your son is displaying an adverse sibling response.
• C. Your son may benefit from counseling.
• D. Consider enrolling your son in preschool to address the behavior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

3. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

4. During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?

• A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
• C. Kleihauer-Betke test
• D. Indirect Coombs' test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is a test used to evaluate fetal lung maturity. An L/S ratio greater than 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity. This test helps in determining the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used in screening for neural tube defects, not for assessing lung maturity. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not fetal lung maturity. The Indirect Coombs' test is used to identify the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that could attack fetal red blood cells, not for assessing lung maturity.

5. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?

• A. Cephalic
• B. Transverse
• C. Posterior
• D. Frank breech

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fetal heart tones above the umbilicus at midline are indicative of a breech presentation, specifically a frank breech position. In a frank breech position, the baby's buttocks are presenting first, which aligns with the fetal heart tones being above the umbilicus. This position indicates that the baby is not in the normal head-down position for birth, which can impact the delivery process and may require specific interventions. Cephalic presentation (Choice A) is the normal head-down position for birth, transverse lie (Choice B) is when the baby is positioned horizontally in the uterus, and posterior position (Choice C) refers to the baby's back being positioned towards the mother's back.

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