ATI LPN
Nutrition For PN Nursing ATI
1. What is a major function of glucose?
- A. Produce energy.
- B. Transport oxygen to cells.
- C. Convert fat to glycogen.
- D. Maintain body weight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Glucose serves as a primary source of energy for the body, especially for the brain and muscles. Choice B is incorrect because glucose itself is not responsible for transporting oxygen to cells. Choice C is incorrect as glucose is converted to glycogen, not the other way around. Choice D is incorrect as glucose itself does not play a direct role in maintaining body weight.
2. A client with liver cirrhosis and ascites is being treated with spironolactone. What is a key nursing consideration for this medication?
- A. Monitoring for signs of hyperkalemia
- B. Checking for signs of hypoglycemia
- C. Assessing for signs of dehydration
- D. Observing for symptoms of hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as it helps retain potassium in the body. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hyperkalemia such as muscle weakness, arrhythmias, or ECG changes is crucial to prevent potential complications.
3. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which symptom is this medication most likely intended to address?
- A. Panic attacks
- B. Tremors and palpitations
- C. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
- D. Depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers are commonly used to alleviate physical symptoms associated with anxiety disorders, such as tremors and palpitations. These medications help manage the autonomic symptoms of anxiety, like increased heart rate and trembling, which are often prominent in social anxiety disorder. Beta-blockers do not primarily target cognitive symptoms like recurrent, intrusive thoughts (choice C), panic attacks (choice A), or depression (choice D) in social anxiety disorder.
4. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Urinary output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
- B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
- C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
- D. Take the second dose at bedtime
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.
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