a nurse is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress which of the following findings should the nurse look for
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyridostigmine is the drug of choice for treating myasthenia gravis because it enhances communication between nerves and muscles by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. Methotrexate (choice A) is not indicated for myasthenia gravis but is used in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Baclofen (choice C) is a muscle relaxant used for conditions like spasticity. Atropine (choice D) is not typically used in myasthenia gravis as it can worsen muscle weakness.

3. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain. The client's respiratory rate has decreased from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose, including hydromorphone. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, and a significant decrease in respiratory rate from 16 to 6 breaths per minute indicates respiratory compromise. Naloxone should be administered promptly to reverse the effects of the opioid and restore normal respiratory function. Flumazenil (Choice B) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for gastrointestinal decontamination in cases of overdose with certain substances, but it is not the appropriate intervention for opioid-induced respiratory depression. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and has no role in managing opioid overdose or respiratory depression.

5. A nurse is providing education to a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and at risk for preterm labor. Which of the following signs should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lower back pain, especially if accompanied by uterine contractions or pressure, can be a sign of preterm labor. The client should report this immediately to prevent complications or early delivery. Shortness of breath (Choice B), decreased fetal movement (Choice C), and nausea and vomiting (Choice D) can be common during pregnancy but are not typically associated with preterm labor. While they should be monitored, they are not immediate signs of concern for preterm labor.

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