Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Shallow breathing
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Warm, dry skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take with meals
• B. Take with a glass of orange juice
• C. Take at bedtime
• D. Take with milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances the absorption of iron, making it more effective. Taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can decrease its absorption and effectiveness, so these options are incorrect.

3. A community health nurse is reviewing information about infectious diseases with the nurses on her team. The nurse should remind the team that which of the following diseases is included in the list of nationally notifiable infectious diseases?

• A. Influenza
• B. Tuberculosis
• C. Gonorrhea
• D. Hepatitis B

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Gonorrhea. Gonorrhea is a reportable sexually transmitted disease, and healthcare providers must report cases to the CDC to track and prevent outbreaks. Influenza, Tuberculosis, and Hepatitis B are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases. Influenza is monitored for its epidemiology and impact on public health, but it is not classified as nationally notifiable. Tuberculosis and Hepatitis B are not included in the list of diseases that healthcare providers are required to report to public health authorities.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness. The nurse should recommend that the protocol include which of the following as a clinical manifestation of smallpox?

• A. Bloody diarrhea
• B. Ptosis of the eyelids
• C. Descending paralysis
• D. Rash in the mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Rash in the mouth.' Smallpox presents with a distinctive rash that typically begins in the mouth and spreads to the rest of the body, developing into pustules. This rash is a key clinical manifestation of smallpox. This infectious disease is characterized by the rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with smallpox. Bloody diarrhea, ptosis of the eyelids, and descending paralysis are not typical clinical manifestations of smallpox.

5. A charge nurse is planning care for a group of patients on a med-surg unit. What task should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Measure hourly urinary output for the postoperative patient.
• B. Administer medications to stable patients.
• C. Reinforce patient education.
• D. Initiate a care plan for a new patient.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assistive personnel can be assigned to measure and document urinary output, a routine task within their scope of practice. Administering medications (choice B) requires a higher level of training and should be done by licensed nurses. Reinforcing patient education (choice C) involves providing information and ensuring patient understanding, which is typically done by licensed healthcare providers. Initiating a care plan (choice D) involves critical thinking and assessment skills, which are beyond the scope of practice for assistive personnel.

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