a nurse is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress which of the following findings should the nurse look for
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for diaphoresis.' Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. It indicates a low blood sugar level and should prompt immediate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly linked to hyperglycemia, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific symptoms of hypoglycemia.

3. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. Which action should the nurse take when toxicity occurs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When toxicity from magnesium sulfate occurs, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate IV as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Positioning the client supine may not address the toxicity issue. Administering dextrose 5% is not the appropriate intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

4. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain hydration. Encouraging high-calorie meals (Choice A) may exacerbate symptoms due to increased gastric stimulation. Providing frequent small meals (Choice C) may not be effective in severe cases where continuous vomiting occurs. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is contraindicated in hyperemesis gravidarum as dehydration is a significant concern.

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