ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Shallow breathing
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Warm, dry skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
- B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
- C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- D. Withhold heparin IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Withholding heparin IV infusion is the priority if there is a risk of complications such as bleeding, which must be evaluated before continuing treatment.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client’s respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?
- A. Promethazine
- B. Hydromorphone
- C. Ketorolac
- D. Amitriptyline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.
4. Using Naegele's Rule, what is the estimated delivery date for a pregnant client whose last menstrual period was on May 4th, 2013?
- A. January 15, 2014
- B. February 11, 2014
- C. March 3, 2014
- D. December 25, 2013
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule is a standard method for calculating the estimated delivery date (EDD). It involves subtracting three months from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), adding seven days, and then adding one year. For a client with an LMP of May 4th, 2013, subtracting three months gives February 4th. Adding seven days results in a due date of February 11th, 2014, which is the correct answer. Choice A (January 15, 2014) is incorrect as it does not account for the full calculation. Choice C (March 3, 2014) is incorrect as it adds too many days in the calculation. Choice D (December 25, 2013) is incorrect as it does not follow the correct steps of Naegele's rule.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who is taking prednisone about the adverse effects of this medication. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Insomnia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct adverse effect of prednisone that the nurse should emphasize is hyperglycemia. Prednisone is known to increase blood sugar levels, leading to hyperglycemia. While weight gain and other metabolic changes are possible side effects, hyperglycemia is a more critical concern due to the risk of uncontrolled blood sugar levels and its impact on overall health. Insomnia and hypertension are not typically associated with prednisone use, making them less relevant to emphasize during client education.
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