a nurse is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress which of the following findings should the nurse look for
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. A client is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, meaning it can cause kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and detect any signs of nephrotoxicity. Blood glucose levels (choice A) are not directly affected by vancomycin. INR levels (choice C) are typically monitored for clients on anticoagulants, not vancomycin. Liver function tests (choice D) are not primarily affected by vancomycin use; kidney function is of greater concern.

3. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is about to start hemodialysis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to reduce potassium intake. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit potassium intake to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys may struggle to remove excess potassium. Increasing protein intake between dialysis sessions (Choice A) is not recommended as it can increase urea production, adding to the workload of the kidneys. Avoiding iron supplements (Choice C) is not necessary unless iron levels are high. Expecting weight gain after each dialysis session (Choice D) is incorrect as patients typically experience weight loss due to fluid removal during dialysis.

5. A healthcare provider is discussing recommendations for daily nutrient intake during pregnancy with a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation. For which of the following nutrients should the healthcare provider instruct the client to increase intake during pregnancy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium. During pregnancy, it is essential to increase calcium intake as it is crucial for fetal bone development and to prevent maternal bone loss. Adequate calcium supports the increased needs of both the mother and the developing baby. Vitamin E, Vitamin D, and fiber are also important nutrients, but the specific nutrient that needs to be increased during pregnancy for bone development is calcium. Vitamin E is an antioxidant that plays a role in protecting cells from damage, Vitamin D helps with calcium absorption and bone health, and fiber is important for digestive health but does not specifically need to be increased during pregnancy for bone development.

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