Nursing Elites

1. After a client's neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the superior laryngeal nerve, what area of assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. The client's swallowing ability
• B. The client's ability to speak
• C. The client's management of secretions
• D. The client's airway patency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve can lead to swallowing difficulties due to impaired laryngeal function. As a result, assessing the client's swallowing ability is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure proper nutrition and hydration.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works by prolonging the clotting time, which is reflected in the aPTT results. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range and not at risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (PT) (Choice A) primarily measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice B) assesses the number of platelets present in the blood and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. International normalized ratio (INR) (Choice D) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

3. A patient with tuberculosis is started on rifampin. What advice should the nurse provide?

• A. Limit intake of green leafy vegetables.
• B. Expect orange-red discoloration of body fluids.
• C. Avoid exposure to sunlight.
• D. Take the medication with antacids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a patient starting rifampin is to expect orange-red discoloration of body fluids. Rifampin can cause harmless orange-red discoloration of body fluids, which may include urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. It is important for the patient to be aware of this side effect as it can stain clothing and contact lenses. Limiting the intake of green leafy vegetables is not necessary with rifampin. Avoiding exposure to sunlight is more commonly associated with other medications like tetracyclines, not rifampin. Taking rifampin with antacids is not recommended as antacids can reduce the absorption of rifampin, decreasing its effectiveness in treating tuberculosis.

4. A 48-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Thyroiditis
• D. Thyroid cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The scenario describes a classic presentation of hypothyroidism, supported by the laboratory findings of high TSH and low free T4 levels. In hypothyroidism, the body's thyroid hormone levels are inadequate, leading to symptoms like fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. High TSH is a compensatory mechanism by the body to increase thyroid hormone production, which is deficient, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, the correct answer is hypothyroidism.

5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fruity breath odor.
• B. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL.
• C. Deep, rapid respirations.
• D. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.

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