Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old woman presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and a history of long-standing heartburn. She has been on proton-pump inhibitors for years, but her symptoms have worsened. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Peptic stricture
• B. Esophageal cancer
• C. Achalasia
• D. Esophageal spasm

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and worsening symptoms despite long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors raises suspicion for esophageal cancer, especially in a patient with a history of chronic heartburn. Esophageal cancer should be considered in this scenario due to the concerning symptoms and lack of improvement despite appropriate medical management.

2. What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?

• A. Increase heart rate
• B. Decrease cardiac output
• C. Strengthen cardiac contractions
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digoxin, when prescribed to a patient with heart failure, primarily acts by strengthening cardiac contractions. This leads to an improvement in cardiac output, making it an essential medication in managing heart failure. By enhancing the force of contractions, digoxin helps the heart pump more effectively and efficiently, leading to better circulation and symptom control in patients with compromised cardiac function.

3. What instruction should a patient with a history of hypertension be provided when being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Monitor weight daily.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with a history of hypertension being discharged with a prescription for a thiazide diuretic is to monitor weight daily. This is important because thiazide diuretics can cause fluid imbalances, and monitoring weight daily can help detect significant changes early. Choice A, avoiding foods high in potassium, is not directly related to thiazide diuretics. Choice B, taking the medication at bedtime, may vary depending on the specific medication but is not a universal instruction. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not appropriate as adequate hydration is important to prevent complications like hypokalemia.

4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Swallow the tablet whole.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Place the tablet under your tongue.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain is to place the tablet under the tongue. This route allows for rapid absorption of the medication, providing quick relief for chest pain associated with myocardial infarction.

5. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Azotemia
• C. Falls
• D. Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.

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