Nursing Elites

1. The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?

• A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
• C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
• D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication as prescribed is the highest priority when caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis is often associated with severe abdominal pain, and alleviating this pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain management can also help reduce stress on the pancreas and promote recovery. Monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels, encouraging oral intake of clear liquids, and assessing bowel sounds are important interventions but addressing the client's pain takes precedence to provide immediate relief and improve outcomes.

2. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds since the last dialysis session.
• C. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dl.
• D. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, which can lead to severe cardiac complications like arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to lower potassium levels to prevent life-threatening outcomes in clients undergoing hemodialysis.

3. A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?

• A. Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy
• B. Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
• C. Treat her for H. pylori
• D. Obtain a dedicated small bowel series

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The next step after finding an elevated fasting serum gastrin level is to perform a secretin stimulation test. This test helps differentiate between gastrinoma and other causes of elevated gastrin levels, such as proton-pump inhibitor therapy or H2 antagonists. In gastrinoma, the serum gastrin level should further increase after secretin infusion, while in other conditions, the levels would not significantly rise. Exploratory laparotomy would be premature without confirming the diagnosis. Treating for H. pylori is not indicated as the diagnosis of gastrinoma is under consideration and not Helicobacter pylori infection. A dedicated small bowel series is not the next appropriate step in this scenario.

4. A client who participates in a health maintenance organization (HMO) needs a bone marrow transplant for the treatment of breast cancer. The client tells the nurse that she is concerned that her HMO may deny her claim. What action by the nurse best addresses the client's need at this time?

• A. Have the client's healthcare provider write a letter to the HMO explaining the need for the transplant.
• B. Help the client place a call to the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage.
• C. Encourage the client to contact a lawyer to file a lawsuit against the HMO if necessary.
• D. Have the social worker contact the state board of insurance to register a complaint against the HMO.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to help the client directly contact the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage. This approach addresses the client's immediate concerns and clarifies the situation, enabling the client to understand the coverage and potential outcomes regarding the bone marrow transplant. Choice A is not the best option as having the healthcare provider write a letter may not provide immediate clarification on coverage. Choice C is inappropriate as legal action should be considered as a last resort, and choice D involving the state board of insurance is not necessary at this initial stage of addressing the client's concern.

5. What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?

• A. Reduce inflammation
• B. Relieve bronchospasm
• C. Thin respiratory secretions
• D. Suppress cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.

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