Nursing Elites

1. The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?

• A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
• C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
• D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication as prescribed is the highest priority when caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis is often associated with severe abdominal pain, and alleviating this pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain management can also help reduce stress on the pancreas and promote recovery. Monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels, encouraging oral intake of clear liquids, and assessing bowel sounds are important interventions but addressing the client's pain takes precedence to provide immediate relief and improve outcomes.

2. The preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils.
• B. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis.
• C. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds.
• D. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early indicators of shock. In a critically ill client, these findings suggest a decrease in tissue perfusion. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent the progression of shock and its complications.

3. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

• A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
• B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
• C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
• D. Barium enema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

4. An 85-year-old male resident of an extended care facility reaches for the hand of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and tries to kiss her hand several times during his morning care. The UAP reports the incident to the charge nurse. What is the best assessment of the situation?

• A. This behavior can be considered sexual harassment and should be reported to the administration immediately.
• B. The UAP should be reassigned to another group of residents, preferably females only.
• C. The client may be suffering from touch deprivation and needs to know appropriate ways to express his need.
• D. The resident needs to understand the rules regarding unwanted touching of the staff and the consequences.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the resident's actions of reaching for the UAP's hand and trying to kiss it could indicate a need for touch rather than intentional sexual harassment. The best assessment is to consider the possibility that the client may be experiencing touch deprivation and is seeking appropriate ways to express his need for physical contact. Providing guidance on acceptable ways to seek physical affection can help address the underlying issue and improve the resident's interactions with the staff. Choice A is incorrect because assuming sexual harassment without understanding the context and potential reasons behind the behavior can lead to misinterpretation. Choice B is inappropriate as reassignment based on gender is not a solution and does not address the root cause of the behavior. Choice D is not the best approach as it focuses solely on setting boundaries without considering the resident's underlying need for touch.

5. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider.'
• B. Increase your intake of iodine-rich foods, such as seafood and dairy products.'
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.'
• D. You may experience weight gain and fatigue as side effects of the medication.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) can suppress bone marrow function, increasing the risk of infection, so it is important to report signs of infection promptly.

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