ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A client with heart failure is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute
- B. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day
- C. Report any weight loss of more than 2 pounds in a week
- D. Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal upset
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is to monitor the pulse before each dose and hold the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administration to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake, reporting weight loss, or taking the medication with meals are not specific instructions related to the safe use of digoxin.
2. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has been taking carbamazepine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 3,000/mm3
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
- C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- D. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of carbamazepine. Leukopenia can increase the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count, which is important to report to the provider for further evaluation and management. Platelet count within normal range (choice B), hemoglobin level within normal range (choice C), and serum potassium level within normal range (choice D) are not directly associated with carbamazepine use and do not require immediate reporting as they do not indicate a serious adverse effect.
4. Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?
- A. Serum calcium level
- B. Apical pulse
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.
5. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access