a nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Questions

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of enalapril that can indicate the development of angioedema or potentially life-threatening angioedema. An onset of dry cough should be reported to the provider promptly as it may require discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications. Frequent urination, tremors, and dizziness are not typically associated with enalapril use and are less likely to be of immediate concern compared to a dry cough in this context.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the provider include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, an important consideration is preventing hypokalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods is crucial to maintain adequate potassium levels in the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of furosemide, monitoring weight daily may not be directly related to the medication, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain medications that interact with grapefruit juice, not furosemide.

3. The client is receiving intravenous heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, used to reverse its anticoagulant effects. It should be readily available in case of bleeding complications, as it can rapidly neutralize the effects of heparin and prevent excessive bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin (Choice B). Calcium gluconate is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not indicated for heparin therapy (Choice C). Magnesium sulfate is used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, not for reversing heparin effects (Choice D).

4. A client with heart failure is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is to monitor the pulse before each dose and hold the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administration to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake, reporting weight loss, or taking the medication with meals are not specific instructions related to the safe use of digoxin.

5. Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, what parameter should the nurse check?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so it is essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure safe administration and monitor the medication's effectiveness. Checking the serum calcium level (Choice A) is not necessary before administering a calcium channel blocker, as it does not directly impact the drug's action. Monitoring the apical pulse (Choice B) is important for other types of medications like beta-blockers, not specifically for calcium channel blockers. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to administering calcium channel blockers for hypertension.

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