ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A client with dementia is at risk of falls. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure safety?
- A. Use restraints to prevent the client from leaving the bed
- B. Use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed
- C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
- D. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia at risk of falls is to use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed. This intervention helps prevent falls while still allowing some freedom of movement. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to complications and is considered a form of restraint which should be avoided. Choice C is not suitable for a client at high risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls. Choice D is not recommended as raising all four side rails can be considered a form of physical restraint and may not be the best approach to prevent falls in a client with dementia.
2. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is being taught about lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of red meat
- B. Increase physical activity to 150 minutes per week
- C. Avoid foods high in fiber
- D. Increase sodium intake to 2,300 mg per day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase physical activity to 150 minutes per week.' Increasing physical activity is essential for clients with CAD as it helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Choice A is incorrect as red meat is high in saturated fats, which can be detrimental for CAD. Choice C is incorrect as foods high in fiber, such as fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, are beneficial for heart health. Choice D is incorrect as increasing sodium intake can lead to hypertension and worsen CAD.
3. What are early indicators of dehydration?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Increased thirst
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.
4. What are the steps in providing perineal care to a patient?
- A. Clean the perineal area with soap and water
- B. Use antiseptic wipes to prevent infection
- C. Pat the area dry after cleaning
- D. Always use gloves when performing care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clean the perineal area with soap and water. This step is essential in preventing infection and promoting hygiene. Using antiseptic wipes (choice B) is not a standard practice for perineal care; soap and water are preferred. While patting the area dry after cleaning (choice C) is important, the initial step of cleaning with soap and water is crucial. Using gloves (choice D) is a good practice to prevent the spread of infection, but it is not the initial step in providing perineal care.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Canned soup
- B. Grilled chicken
- C. Peanut butter
- D. Orange juice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Grilled chicken is the correct choice as it is a low-potassium, low-sodium option suitable for clients with chronic kidney disease. Canned soup (choice A) is typically high in sodium, which is not recommended for this client population. Peanut butter (choice C) is high in potassium and phosphorus, which should be limited in individuals with kidney disease. Orange juice (choice D) is high in potassium and should be consumed in moderation by clients with chronic kidney disease.
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