ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023
1. A client with an acute myocardial infarction is concerned about extreme fatigue. What is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care?
- A. Instruct the client to limit all activity until fully rested
- B. Encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with rest periods
- C. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
- D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with rest periods is the best strategy to promote independence in self-care for a client with acute myocardial infarction. This approach allows the client to regain independence while considering the need for rest to prevent overexertion. Instructing the client to limit all activity until fully rested (Choice A) may hinder independence by promoting inactivity. Assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks (Choice C) does not promote the client's independence. Asking the client's family to assist with self-care (Choice D) may not foster the client's self-reliance and may not always be feasible.
2. A client undergoing chemotherapy for cancer is being taught about potential adverse effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid drinking water before meals
- B. I might experience hair loss during treatment
- C. I might experience an increase in appetite
- D. I should expect my appetite to increase
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hair loss is a common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding drinking water before meals, experiencing an increase in appetite, or expecting appetite to increase are not related to the potential adverse effects of chemotherapy.
3. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?
- A. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily.
- B. The cord stump will fall off in 5 days.
- C. Contact the provider if the cord stump turns black.
- D. Keep the cord stump dry until it falls off.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This is important to promote natural healing and prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily can actually delay healing and increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as the cord stump typically falls off within 1 to 3 weeks, not in 5 days. Choice C is incorrect because a cord stump turning black is a normal part of the healing process and does not necessarily indicate a problem requiring immediate provider contact.
4. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube?
- A. Check tube placement and assess for signs of aspiration
- B. Flush the tube with water regularly to maintain patency
- C. Monitor for bowel sounds and administer medications
- D. Administer medications through the tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, it is crucial to check the tube placement and assess for signs of aspiration. This ensures that the tube is correctly positioned and that the patient is not at risk of complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Choice B is incorrect as flushing the tube with water regularly is not a standard practice and may not be appropriate for all patients. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring for bowel sounds is not directly related to NG tube care, and administering medications is not the primary focus of caring for the tube itself. Choice D is incorrect because administering medications through the NG tube is a specific action that may be taken based on a healthcare provider's order, not a general care guideline for the NG tube.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. WBC count 2,900 /mm3.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dl.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dl.
- D. Heart rate 58/min.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 indicates leukopenia, which is a serious side effect of clozapine and contraindicates its use. Leukopenia is a significant concern with clozapine therapy due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Monitoring the WBC count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. The other options (B, C, and D) are within normal ranges and not contraindications for administering clozapine.
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