a nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medicat
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023

1. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught measures to prevent exacerbation of the condition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit alcohol consumption. Alcohol can irritate the stomach lining and worsen peptic ulcer disease. Avoiding dairy products is not necessary unless the client is lactose intolerant. Using antacids frequently may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause of the condition. Drinking coffee can actually stimulate acid production and potentially aggravate peptic ulcers.

3. A client who has a new prosthesis for an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg needs teaching on its use. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day. This helps the client adjust to and maintain mobility. Choice A is incorrect because wearing the prosthesis for only 2 hours at a time may not be sufficient for proper adjustment. Choice B is incorrect as removing the prosthesis every other day is not a standard practice and may hinder the client's mobility. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis is unnecessary and not a recommended practice.

4. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor various parameters to ensure patient safety. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any potential dysrhythmias that may occur due to potassium imbalances. Monitoring urine output is important as potassium levels can affect renal function. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the IV potassium therapy. Therefore, all the options - monitoring ECG for dysrhythmias, urine output, and serum potassium levels - are necessary when administering IV potassium, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as they each address different aspects of patient monitoring when receiving IV potassium.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a client who is obese. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Z-track method should be used to administer IM injections in obese clients to prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissue. Using a longer needle (1.5 inches) ensures that the medication reaches the muscle mass adequately. Choice C is incorrect because the deltoid muscle is not ideal for IM injections in obese clients due to inadequate muscle mass. Administering the injection at a 90° angle (perpendicular to the skin) is recommended for IM injections to ensure proper delivery into the muscle.

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