a client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy billroth i in planning the discharge teaching the client should be cautioned by th
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ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. A nurse in a long-term care facility is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who reports shortness of breath and increased fatigue. The nurse should report which of the following to the provider after hearing this sound?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fine crackles. Fine crackles suggest fluid in the lungs, which could indicate a serious respiratory issue like pulmonary edema. This sound should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched wheezing sounds often caused by secretions in the larger airways, wheezing (choice C) is a high-pitched whistling sound usually caused by narrowed airways, and stridor (choice D) is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration that indicates upper airway obstruction. While these sounds also require attention, fine crackles are more indicative of fluid accumulation in the lungs, making them the priority for reporting in this scenario.

3. A client undergoing chemotherapy for cancer is being taught about potential adverse effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hair loss is a common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding drinking water before meals, experiencing an increase in appetite, or expecting appetite to increase are not related to the potential adverse effects of chemotherapy.

4. What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.

5. A client is receiving IV fluids and has developed phlebitis. What is the next step the nurse should take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct next step when a client develops phlebitis while receiving IV fluids is to remove the catheter and place it in another site. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, and leaving the catheter in the same site can lead to further complications. Monitoring the site for further swelling, as in choice A, is not enough as the source of inflammation needs to be removed. Choice C, reducing the flow rate, may not address the underlying issue causing phlebitis. Switching to oral hydration, as in choice D, is not necessary for addressing phlebitis related to IV fluid administration.

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