Nursing Elites

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

• A. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating
• B. Avoid fluids between meals
• C. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods
• D. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. What are the complications of diabetic ketoacidosis?

• A. Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration
• B. Hypoglycemia and increased urination
• C. Kidney failure and respiratory distress
• D. Liver failure and hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration. Diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to imbalances in electrolytes such as potassium, sodium, and chloride, as well as dehydration due to excess urination and vomiting. These complications should be managed promptly with appropriate fluids and insulin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypoglycemia and increased urination are not typical complications of diabetic ketoacidosis; kidney failure and respiratory distress may occur in severe cases but are not the primary complications. Liver failure and hypertension are not directly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a suspected infection?

• A. Monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells
• B. Monitor blood pressure and check for fever
• C. Assess for changes in mental status and monitor urine output
• D. Administer antibiotics and monitor for changes in mental status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with a suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells. Elevated temperature indicates a potential infection, and increased white blood cells are a sign of inflammation and the body's response to an infection. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) and checking for fever (choice B) are not as specific indicators of infection as monitoring temperature and white blood cell count. Assessing changes in mental status and monitoring urine output (choice C) are important aspects of patient assessment but may not directly indicate a suspected infection. Administering antibiotics (choice D) should only be done after a confirmed diagnosis of a bacterial infection, as unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other adverse effects.

4. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage increased protein intake
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

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