a client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy billroth i in planning the discharge teaching the client should be cautioned by th
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ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. A client with moderate anxiety disorder is being taught stress management techniques by a nurse. Which response by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because imagining oneself in a calm place is a relaxation technique that helps reduce anxiety. Walking, meditating every other week, or cutting back on caffeine intake may have their benefits, but they are not as directly related to the immediate management of anxiety as the visualization technique described in option B.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who is to undergo total knee arthroplasty about postoperative care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply ice to the affected knee for 24-48 hours. Applying ice helps to reduce inflammation and pain after knee surgery, promoting healing. Choice A is incorrect because heat is not recommended postoperatively, as it can increase swelling. Choice B is incorrect because pillows should be placed under the knee to keep it elevated. Choice C is incorrect because early mobilization is essential for preventing complications such as blood clots.

4. What are the steps in managing a patient with a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This step is crucial in managing a pressure ulcer as it helps protect the ulcer from infection and promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to tissue repair. Choice B, debriding necrotic tissue and applying antibiotics, is more suitable for managing infected pressure ulcers but not as the initial step. Choice C, applying an alginate dressing and elevating the affected area, may be part of the management but is not the initial step. Choice D, using moisture-retentive dressings and repositioning frequently, is important for prevention but not the first step in managing an existing pressure ulcer.

5. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.

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