a client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy billroth i in planning the discharge teaching the client should be cautioned by th
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ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and new onset confusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate should be the nurse's first action. Hypoxia is a common complication of pneumonia and can lead to confusion. Providing adequate oxygenation is essential in addressing hypoxia and improving the client's condition.\nOption B: Obtaining vital signs is important but addressing hypoxia takes precedence in the setting of new onset confusion.\nOption C: Administering an antibiotic is important for treating pneumonia but addressing hypoxia and confusion is the priority.\nOption D: Notifying the provider may be necessary but addressing the immediate physiological need of oxygenation should come first.

3. A client receiving IV fluids has developed phlebitis. What action should the nurse take next after removing the IV catheter?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After removing an IV catheter due to phlebitis, the next step is to apply a warm compress over the IV site. This helps reduce inflammation and discomfort for the client. Recording the findings in the client's chart is important for documentation purposes but not the immediate next step. Notifying the client's primary care provider may be necessary depending on the severity of the phlebitis, but it is not the initial action. Inserting a new IV catheter is not appropriate until the phlebitis has resolved.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

5. What is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of anaphylaxis, all of the listed interventions are crucial for effective management. Administering epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction rapidly. Providing oxygen ensures adequate oxygenation to vital organs, and monitoring the airway is essential to prevent obstruction and maintain a clear air passage. Therefore, all three interventions are necessary in managing anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient to address all aspects of anaphylaxis, making the comprehensive approach of 'All of the above' the correct answer.

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