Nursing Elites

1. While preparing a client for a cardiac catheterization, the client expresses a preference to speak with their doctor rather than the nurse. Which response by the nurse should be therapeutic?

• A. Your doctor expects me to prepare you for this procedure.
• B. That's fine, if that's what you want. I'll call your health care provider.
• C. So you're saying that you want to talk to your health care provider?
• D. I'm concerned with the way you've dismissed me. I know what I am doing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The therapeutic response by the nurse in this situation involves reflecting the client's feelings back to them, which demonstrates active listening and empathy. By restating the client's preference to talk to their doctor, the nurse acknowledges and validates the client's feelings, thereby fostering a positive therapeutic relationship and promoting open communication. Choices A and B do not acknowledge the client's preference and may come off as dismissive. Choice D is confrontational and defensive, which can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust between the nurse and the client.

2. The client is being taught about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which instruction should be provided?

• A. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve.
• C. Chew the tablet and then swallow.
• D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct method for administering sublingual nitroglycerin is to place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve. This route of administration facilitates rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream, enabling quick relief of chest pain associated with angina or heart conditions. Choice A is incorrect because sublingual nitroglycerin should not be swallowed whole. Choice C is wrong as chewing the tablet can lead to the rapid release of the drug, causing adverse effects like headaches or dizziness. Choice D is also incorrect as the tablet should not be placed between the cheek and gum, but under the tongue for proper absorption.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which action should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

• A. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Maintain the client in a supine position at all times.
• C. Keep the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours.
• D. Restrict the client's fluid intake to prevent overload.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe every 1 to 2 hours is crucial post-CABG surgery to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis and pneumonia. These actions help to expand lung volume, clear secretions, and prevent the collapse of alveoli. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position at all times can lead to complications like decreased lung expansion, keeping the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours may increase the risk of thromboembolism, and restricting fluid intake postoperatively can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

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