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ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Offer the client high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals.
- B. Ask the client why they are not participating in therapy.
- C. Sit with the client and offer support without demanding participation.
- D. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of major depressive disorder where the client is non-participatory and withdrawn, sitting with the client and providing support without pressuring them to engage in activities like eating or therapy is crucial. This approach respects the client's current state, builds trust, and creates a supportive environment that can eventually lead to the client opening up and accepting help.
2. A highly successful individual presents to the community mental health center complaining of sleeplessness and anxiety over their financial status. What action should the nurse take to assist this client in diminishing their anxiety?
- A. Encourage them to initiate daily rituals.
- B. Reinforce the reality of their financial situation.
- C. Direct them to drink a glass of red wine at bedtime.
- D. Teach them to limit sugar and caffeine intake.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Teaching the individual to limit sugar and caffeine intake is an appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety and improve sleep quality. Sugar and caffeine can exacerbate anxiety symptoms and disrupt sleep patterns. By reducing their intake, the individual may experience a decrease in anxiety levels and better sleep. Encouraging daily rituals, reinforcing financial realities, or suggesting alcohol consumption before bed are not evidence-based strategies for managing anxiety and sleeplessness.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
- C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
- D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm3 is low and indicates leukopenia, which increases the client's risk for infection. Hemoglobin level and platelet count are not directly indicative of infection risk. Serum creatinine level is related to kidney function, not infection risk.
4. A client with a cold is taking the antitussive benzonatate (Tessalon). Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Reports reduced nasal discharge.
- B. Denies having coughing spells.
- C. Able to sleep through the night.
- D. Expectorating bronchial secretions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Denying having coughing spells indicates the effectiveness of benzonatate, an antitussive that suppresses coughing. The goal of antitussive medications like benzonatate is to reduce or eliminate coughing, so the absence of coughing spells signifies the drug's efficacy. The other options do not directly reflect the medication's intended effect and are not specific indicators of benzonatate's effectiveness.
5. A client who has Type 1 diabetes and is at 10-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic complaining of a headache, nausea, sweating, feeling shaky, and being tired all the time. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the blood glucose level.
- B. Draw blood for a Hemoglobin A1C.
- C. Assess urine for ketone levels.
- D. Provide the client with a protein snack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to check the client's blood glucose level. This is crucial to determine if the symptoms are a result of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia, which requires immediate attention to maintain the client's health and the health of the developing fetus.
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