Nursing Elites

1. A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate
• B. Suction the tracheostomy
• C. Notify the physician immediately
• D. Administer a bronchodilator

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the immediate priority for the nurse is to suction the tracheostomy. This action helps clear the airway of secretions and ensures that the client can breathe effectively. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction is more critical. Notifying the physician immediately is important but may cause a delay in addressing the immediate need for airway clearance. Administering a bronchodilator may help with bronchospasm but should not take precedence over ensuring a clear airway in a client with respiratory distress.

2. What are the signs and symptoms of fluid overload, and how should a nurse manage this condition?

• A. Edema, weight gain, shortness of breath
• B. Fever, cough, chest pain
• C. Increased heart rate, low blood pressure
• D. Increased blood pressure, jugular venous distention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluid overload manifests as edema, weight gain, and shortness of breath. These symptoms occur due to an excess of fluid in the body. Managing fluid overload involves interventions such as monitoring fluid intake and output, adjusting diuretic therapy, restricting fluid intake, and collaborating with healthcare providers to address the underlying cause. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent typical signs of fluid overload. Fever, cough, chest pain, increased heart rate, low blood pressure, increased blood pressure, and jugular venous distention are not primary indicators of fluid overload.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

5. A nurse at a long-term care facility is part of a team preparing a report on the quality of care at the facility. Which of the following information should the nurse recommend including in the report to demonstrate improvement in care quality?

• A. Increased admissions
• B. 12% fewer urinary tract infections
• C. Increased mortality rate
• D. No changes in staffing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '12% fewer urinary tract infections.' Tracking infections, such as UTIs, is crucial in assessing care quality improvements as the reduction in infections indicates better infection control practices and overall quality of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased admissions (Choice A) do not directly reflect improvements in care quality. Increased mortality rate (Choice C) is a negative outcome and demonstrates a decline in care quality. No changes in staffing (Choice D) do not provide direct evidence of care quality improvements.

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