ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). The nurse should teach the client about which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Muscle pain
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like atorvastatin. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect, as it can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis, which requires immediate medical attention. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not typically associated with atorvastatin use.
2. A client with a history of angina is scheduled for an exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to evaluate which factor?
- A. The heart's response to physical stress
- B. The client's overall physical fitness
- C. The presence of electrolyte imbalances
- D. The effectiveness of anti-anginal medications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test is used to evaluate the heart's response to physical stress. During the test, the heart's electrical activity is monitored while the client exercises, helping to identify any areas of ischemia or abnormal rhythms. This test helps healthcare providers assess the heart's function and detect any potential issues related to angina or other cardiac conditions. Choice B, the client's overall physical fitness, is incorrect because the test primarily focuses on the heart's response to stress rather than the client's general physical fitness. Choice C, the presence of electrolyte imbalances, is incorrect as this test is not specifically designed to evaluate electrolyte levels. Choice D, the effectiveness of anti-anginal medications, is incorrect as the main purpose of the test is to assess the heart's response to physical stress, not medication effectiveness.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. The nurse should check which parameter before administering the medication?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Heart rate
- D. Serum sodium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a thiazide diuretic to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the blood pressure. Thiazide diuretics are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so assessing the client's blood pressure prior to administration helps to monitor the effectiveness of the medication and to ensure the client's safety. Checking the serum potassium level (Choice A), heart rate (Choice C), or serum sodium level (Choice D) are also important parameters in the care of a client on a thiazide diuretic, but the priority assessment before administering the medication is the blood pressure to evaluate the drug's effectiveness in managing hypertension.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.
5. The nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client to prevent bleeding complications?
- A. Use a soft-bristle toothbrush and electric razor.
- B. Increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods.
- C. Take aspirin if you have a headache.
- D. Avoid using ice packs for injuries.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent bleeding complications in a client on anticoagulant therapy is to use a soft-bristle toothbrush and an electric razor. These implements help reduce the risk of bleeding by being gentle on the skin and reducing the chances of cuts or abrasions that could lead to bleeding in individuals on anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with the action of anticoagulants. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is a blood thinner and can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with anticoagulant therapy. Choice D is incorrect as ice packs can help reduce bleeding and swelling in injuries, but in a client on anticoagulant therapy, it is important to avoid potential trauma to the skin that could lead to bleeding.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access