Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?

• A. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• B. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)
• C. Folic acid
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can result in neurological symptoms such as confusion and an unsteady gait. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function and nerve conduction, and its deficiency is common in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency can also present with neurological symptoms, but in this case, the patient's history of chronic alcohol use points more towards thiamine deficiency. Folic acid deficiency typically presents with symptoms like fatigue and megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone health issues rather than neurological symptoms.

2. A 38-year-old male client collapsed at his outside construction job in Texas in July. His admitting vital signs to ICU are, BP 82/70, heart rate 140 beats/minute, urine output 10 ml/hr, skin cool to the touch. Pulmonary artery (PA) pressures are, PAWP 1, PAP 8/2, RAP -1, SVR 1600. What nursing action has the highest priority?

• A. Apply a hypothermia unit to stabilize core temperature.
• B. Increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr.
• C. Call the hospital chaplain to counsel the family.
• D. Draw blood cultures x3 to detect infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr. The client's vital signs indicate signs of shock and hypovolemia, making fluid resuscitation the priority to address these conditions. Improving intravascular volume is crucial to stabilize the client's blood pressure, heart rate, and urine output, ultimately improving organ perfusion and addressing the underlying issue of hypovolemia.

3. What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach.
• C. Discontinue the medication if you feel better.
• D. Double the dose if a dose is missed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with hypothyroidism prescribed levothyroxine is to take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with meals can interfere with absorption. Patients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider as it can lead to adverse effects. Doubling the dose if a dose is missed can increase the risk of side effects and overdosage. It is crucial for patients to follow the prescribed dosing schedule and consult their healthcare provider for any concerns or missed doses.

4. A highly successful individual presents to the community mental health center complaining of sleeplessness and anxiety over their financial status. What action should the nurse take to assist this client in diminishing their anxiety?

• A. Encourage them to initiate daily rituals.
• B. Reinforce the reality of their financial situation.
• C. Direct them to drink a glass of red wine at bedtime.
• D. Teach them to limit sugar and caffeine intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teaching the individual to limit sugar and caffeine intake is an appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety and improve sleep quality. Sugar and caffeine can exacerbate anxiety symptoms and disrupt sleep patterns. By reducing their intake, the individual may experience a decrease in anxiety levels and better sleep. Encouraging daily rituals, reinforcing financial realities, or suggesting alcohol consumption before bed are not evidence-based strategies for managing anxiety and sleeplessness.

5. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

• A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
• B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
• C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
• D. Barium enema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

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