Nursing Elites

1. A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation. Physical examination reveals a soft abdomen with minimal tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Acute pancreatitis
• B. Mesenteric ischemia
• C. Peptic ulcer disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain in a patient with atrial fibrillation, along with a soft abdomen and minimal tenderness on examination, suggest mesenteric ischemia due to embolic occlusion of the mesenteric arteries. This condition is characterized by a sudden and severe decrease in blood flow to the intestines, leading to abdominal pain and tenderness. Acute pancreatitis typically presents with epigastric pain that may radiate to the back, accompanied by elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. Peptic ulcer disease and diverticulitis usually do not manifest with the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain as described in the case.

2. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?

• A. Supine
• B. Prone
• C. High Fowler's
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The High Fowler's position is the most appropriate position for a patient with COPD experiencing severe dyspnea. This position helps improve lung expansion and reduce dyspnea by allowing the diaphragm to move more freely and increasing the efficiency of breathing. It also helps reduce the work of breathing and enhances oxygenation in patients with COPD. Supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. Prone position (Choice B) is not ideal for COPD patients experiencing severe dyspnea as it may restrict breathing. Trendelenburg position (Choice D) is not recommended for COPD patients with dyspnea as it can further compromise breathing.

3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Tardive dyskinesia.
• B. Orthostatic hypotension.
• C. Photosensitivity.
• D. Hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that can lead to tardive dyskinesia, a side effect characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial to provide timely interventions and prevent further complications.

4. A patient with diabetes insipidus is prescribed desmopressin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase urine output
• B. Reduce blood sugar levels
• C. Decrease urine output
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Desmopressin is prescribed to decrease urine output in patients with diabetes insipidus. It works by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, helping to control fluid balance in the body.

5. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

• A. Liver biopsy
• B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
• C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
• D. Colonoscopy with biopsies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.

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