Nursing Elites

1. A patient with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What is the most important instruction to give to the patient?

• A. Use the inhaler only during asthma attacks.
• B. Rinse the mouth after using the inhaler.
• C. Take a double dose if symptoms worsen.
• D. Avoid using a spacer with the inhaler.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction to give to a patient using a corticosteroid inhaler is to rinse the mouth after each use. This is crucial to prevent the development of oral thrush, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Failure to rinse the mouth can lead to the overgrowth of yeast in the mouth, causing oral thrush, which can be uncomfortable and require additional treatment. Therefore, reminding patients to rinse their mouth after using the inhaler is essential in preventing this potential complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Using the inhaler only during asthma attacks may lead to uncontrolled asthma symptoms. Taking a double dose without healthcare provider instruction can result in overdose or side effects. Avoiding a spacer with the inhaler can reduce the effectiveness of delivering the medication to the lungs.

2. In a 45-year-old woman with a history of arthritis experiencing severe heartburn and indigestion refractory to antacids, which findings on an esophageal manometry study are consistent with her diagnosis?

• A. Vigorous peristalsis and elevated lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure
• B. Absent peristalsis and elevated LES pressure
• C. Absent peristalsis and decreased LES pressure
• D. Vigorous peristalsis and decreased LES pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absent peristalsis and decreased lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. The patient in this scenario has scleroderma esophagus, characterized by atrophy of esophageal smooth muscle, leading to the loss of peristalsis and LES tone. These changes contribute to severe symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and esophagitis. Absent peristalsis and decreased LES pressure are typical findings in scleroderma esophagus, contributing to the refractory nature of the patient's symptoms despite antacid use.

3. A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
• B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
• C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
• D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with urinary sepsis, administering Piperacillin/tazobactam first is crucial as it is an antibiotic that directly targets the infection. Addressing the infection promptly is essential to prevent its progression and complications. Vancomycin, Pantoprazole, and Enoxaparin are important medications for the patient's overall treatment plan, but in this scenario, the antibiotic should take precedence due to the urgency of managing the sepsis.

4. Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should receive which instruction regarding warfarin therapy?

• A. Continue taking warfarin until the day of surgery.
• B. Stop taking warfarin three days before surgery.
• C. Switch to aspirin before surgery.
• D. Stop taking warfarin one week before surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to elective surgery, a patient taking warfarin should be instructed to stop taking warfarin around one week before the procedure. This timeframe allows for the effects of warfarin to diminish, lowering the risk of excessive bleeding during surgery. Continuing warfarin until the day of surgery (Choice A) increases the risk of bleeding complications. Stopping warfarin three days before surgery (Choice B) may not provide enough time for the anticoagulant effects to subside. Switching to aspirin before surgery (Choice C) is not recommended as a substitute for warfarin in this context.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
• B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
• C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
• D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pre-procedure instruction the nurse should provide to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for a renal biopsy is to avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This instruction is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure, as anticoagulants can increase the chance of bleeding complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining a low-protein diet, drinking plenty of fluids, or taking routine medications with water are not specifically related to reducing the risk of bleeding associated with a renal biopsy in a client with CKD.

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