a client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain while ambulating in the corridor what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

1. A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain while ambulating in the corridor. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a history of angina pectoris experiences chest pain while ambulating, the priority action for the nurse is to assist the client to sit or lie down. This helps reduce the demand on the heart by decreasing physical exertion. Checking vital signs, administering medication, or applying oxygen can follow once the client is in a more comfortable position. Checking vital signs (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate discomfort by positioning the client comfortably takes precedence. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice C) is appropriate but should come after ensuring the client's comfort. Applying nasal oxygen (Choice D) can be beneficial, but it should not be the first action; assisting the client to sit or lie down is the initial priority.

2. The client is scheduled to undergo a treadmill stress test. Which instruction should the client be reinforced with?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear comfortable shoes and clothing.' Wearing comfortable shoes and clothing is crucial for the client undergoing a treadmill stress test to ensure they can complete the test without discomfort. The right attire will help the client move freely and reduce the risk of any hindrance during the test, which requires physical activity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A light meal before the test may be recommended, but it's not as crucial as wearing suitable attire. Avoiding physical activity the morning of the test is not necessary as the test requires physical activity. Taking prescribed medications right before the test instructions should be followed as per the healthcare provider's advice and not as a general rule for all clients undergoing the test.

3. The healthcare provider notes this rhythm on the client's cardiac monitor. The healthcare provider next reports that the client is experiencing which heart rhythm?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregular and often rapid heart rate, which can lead to poor blood flow due to ineffective contractions of the atria. Sinus bradycardia (Choice C) is a regular but slow heart rhythm originating from the sinus node. Normal sinus rhythm (Choice A) refers to a regular heartbeat originating from the sinus node. Ventricular fibrillation (Choice D) is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by rapid, uncoordinated contractions of the ventricles.

4. The healthcare provider has reinforced dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the dietary instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using polyunsaturated oils, such as vegetable oils, can help manage cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of heart disease. This dietary change is beneficial for individuals with coronary artery disease as it promotes heart health by improving cholesterol profiles. Substituting eggs and milk for meat (Choice A) may not address the overall dietary needs for managing the condition. Completely eliminating all cholesterol and fat from the diet (Choice B) is not necessary as the body needs some healthy fats. Considering becoming a strict vegetarian (Choice D) is a personal choice and may not necessarily be required to manage coronary artery disease.

5. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

Similar Questions

A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. What is the next appropriate nursing action?
A client has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of theophylline toxicity?
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