ATI LPN
ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019
1. A client who participates in a health maintenance organization (HMO) needs a bone marrow transplant for the treatment of breast cancer. The client tells the nurse that she is concerned that her HMO may deny her claim. What action by the nurse best addresses the client's need at this time?
- A. Have the client's healthcare provider write a letter to the HMO explaining the need for the transplant.
- B. Help the client place a call to the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage.
- C. Encourage the client to contact a lawyer to file a lawsuit against the HMO if necessary.
- D. Have the social worker contact the state board of insurance to register a complaint against the HMO.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to help the client directly contact the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage. This approach addresses the client's immediate concerns and clarifies the situation, enabling the client to understand the coverage and potential outcomes regarding the bone marrow transplant. Choice A is not the best option as having the healthcare provider write a letter may not provide immediate clarification on coverage. Choice C is inappropriate as legal action should be considered as a last resort, and choice D involving the state board of insurance is not necessary at this initial stage of addressing the client's concern.
2. A patient with severe anemia is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulate white blood cell production
- B. Increase platelet count
- C. Promote red blood cell production
- D. Enhance clotting factor production
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin is a hormone that primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. By increasing red blood cell production, erythropoietin helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues, which is essential in managing anemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct effect on white blood cells, platelets, or clotting factors.
3. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?
- A. Soft, spongy fundus.
- B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
- C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
- D. Unilateral lower leg pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.
4. A client with diabetes has a new prescription for 14 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at breakfast daily. What is the total number of units of insulin that should be prepared in the insulin syringe?
- A. 42 units
- B. 14 units
- C. 28 units
- D. 32 units
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total number of units of insulin, you need to add the 14 units of regular insulin to the 28 units of NPH insulin, which equals 42 units. Therefore, the nurse should prepare 42 units of insulin in the syringe for the client.
5. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?
- A. High Fowler's position.
- B. Supine position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Sims' position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.
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