ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. What dietary advice should the nurse provide to help reduce the occurrence of hot flashes in a post-menopausal client?
- A. Increase intake of spicy foods.
- B. Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption.
- C. Consume a high-protein diet.
- D. Eat more dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Limiting caffeine and alcohol consumption is recommended to help reduce the frequency of hot flashes in post-menopausal individuals. Caffeine and alcohol can trigger hot flashes and worsen their occurrence. Encouraging the client to reduce these stimulants in their diet may help alleviate hot flashes and improve their quality of life.
2. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
- C. Take the medication with meals.
- D. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with metformin. Patients should also be educated about the signs of lactic acidosis, a rare but serious side effect associated with metformin use.
3. During an admission physical assessment, the nurse is examining a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?
- A. Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dL.
- B. Head circumference of 35 cm (14 inches).
- C. Widened, tense, bulging fontanel.
- D. High-pitched shrill cry.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A widened, tense, bulging fontanel is a critical finding in a newborn as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure. This condition requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring fontanel status is crucial in assessing the newborn's neurological well-being and ensuring early detection of potential issues.
4. A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Fever and chills.
- C. Increased urine output.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction. These symptoms indicate that the body is having a response to the transfused blood, possibly due to incompatibility or an immune reaction. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic signs of a transfusion reaction. It is crucial to recognize symptoms of a transfusion reaction promptly to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. Which laboratory result requires the most immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 350 mg/dL.
- B. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L.
- C. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L.
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low and can cause cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia is a life-threatening condition that needs prompt correction to prevent serious complications. High serum glucose levels (choice A) are a concern in diabetes but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to severe hypokalemia. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum bicarbonate levels (choice D) are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention.
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