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1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest.
- B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical finding in a client with COPD. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications and may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation levels and prevent further respiratory distress. Monitoring and maintaining adequate oxygen saturation is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and preventing respiratory failure.
2. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Tardive dyskinesia.
- B. Orthostatic hypotension.
- C. Photosensitivity.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that can lead to tardive dyskinesia, a side effect characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial to provide timely interventions and prevent further complications.
3. During an admission physical assessment, the nurse is examining a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?
- A. Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dL.
- B. Head circumference of 35 cm (14 inches).
- C. Widened, tense, bulging fontanel.
- D. High-pitched shrill cry.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A widened, tense, bulging fontanel is a critical finding in a newborn as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure. This condition requires immediate attention and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring fontanel status is crucial in assessing the newborn's neurological well-being and ensuring early detection of potential issues.
4. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Irritable bowel syndrome
- B. Celiac disease
- C. Lactose intolerance
- D. Crohn's disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea improving with fasting, and a history of iron deficiency anemia are characteristic of celiac disease. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten consumption, leading to damage in the small intestine. The improvement with fasting may be due to the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome, lactose intolerance, and Crohn's disease do not typically present with improvement of symptoms with fasting or have a clear association with iron deficiency anemia.
5. A male infant born at 30-weeks gestation at an outlying hospital is being prepared for transport to a Level IV neonatal facility. His respirations are 90/min, and his heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Which drug is the transport team most likely to administer to this infant?
- A. Ampicillin (Omnipen) 25 mg/kg slow IV push.
- B. Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) 2.5 mg/kg IV.
- C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 20 micrograms/kg IV.
- D. Beractant (Survanta) 100 mg/kg per endotracheal tube.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the infant is a preterm neonate with respiratory distress and is being transported to a Level IV neonatal facility. The drug most likely to be administered by the transport team is Beractant (Survanta) via endotracheal tube. Beractant is a surfactant used to treat respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants by improving lung compliance and reducing the need for mechanical ventilation.
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