Nursing Elites

1. When educating a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Store the medication in a cool, dark place.
• B. Take the medication before bedtime.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin is to take the medication at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve chest pain associated with angina. Taking it at the onset of chest pain ensures prompt relief by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart muscle. Storing nitroglycerin in a cool, dark place helps maintain its potency, while taking it with food can alter its absorption. Timing the medication with bedtime is not necessary, but prompt administration at the first sign of chest pain is crucial for effective management of angina. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because storing the medication in a cool, dark place, taking it before bedtime, and taking it with food are not essential instructions for nitroglycerin use. The priority is to administer it promptly when chest pain occurs to achieve optimal therapeutic effects.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a worsening of the disease and the need for adjustments in medication or other interventions. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Weight gain, urinary retention, and dry mouth are not directly associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy or indicative of a worsening condition in Parkinson's disease, making them less urgent findings to report to the provider.

3. A client has a new prescription for heparin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory result that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin. Heparin works by prolonging the aPTT, and monitoring this parameter helps ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety in preventing clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Platelet count is essential to assess platelet function and clotting disorders, but it is not specifically used to monitor heparin therapy.

4. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

5. A client has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Monitor for signs of weight gain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to 'Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.' Grapefruit juice can increase sertraline levels, leading to an elevated risk of side effects. Instructing the client to avoid grapefruit juice is crucial to prevent potential interactions that could impact the effectiveness and safety of the medication. The other options are not directly related to sertraline administration. Taking the medication in the morning may vary depending on individual preferences or the prescriber's directions. Taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for many medications and not specific to sertraline. Monitoring for signs of weight gain is important but not a direct instruction related to taking sertraline.

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