Nursing Elites

1. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:

• A. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
• B. Probable sign of pregnancy
• C. Positive sign of pregnancy
• D. Possible sign of pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.

2. What is the nurse's next action after a laboring client's membranes have just ruptured?

• A. Assess fetal heart rate pattern
• B. Monitor uterine contractions
• C. Administer oxygen
• D. Prepare for delivery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a laboring client's membranes have ruptured, the nurse's immediate priority is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern. This assessment is crucial to ensure the fetus is not in distress, especially to rule out umbilical cord compression that could affect blood flow to the fetus. While monitoring uterine contractions is important, assessing the fetal heart rate takes precedence in this situation as it directly reflects the fetus's well-being. Administering oxygen may be necessary later depending on the fetal status, and preparing for delivery should only occur if the assessment indicates fetal distress or other complications. Therefore, the correct next action for the nurse is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the fundus
• B. Administer methylergonovine
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.

4. A client just received the first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Place the client on cardiac monitoring
• B. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
• C. Provide standby assistance when getting out of bed
• D. Encourage foods high in potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when getting out of bed. Lisinopril can cause first-dose hypotension, leading to dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. Standby assistance helps ensure the client's safety when mobilizing. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) is not necessary unless there are specific indications for cardiac monitoring. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is not directly related to the side effects of lisinopril. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not the most immediate or appropriate intervention following the administration of lisinopril.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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