ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:
- A. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
- B. Probable sign of pregnancy
- C. Positive sign of pregnancy
- D. Possible sign of pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.
2. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. Avoid potassium-rich foods
- B. Take the medication with food
- C. Monitor for signs of toxicity
- D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.
3. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?
- A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated shoulder
- B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
- C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
- D. A 50-year-old client who has slurred speech and reports a headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with slurred speech and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent irreversible brain damage. While each client requires prompt assessment and care, the priority is to address potentially life-threatening conditions first. Choices A, B, and C, although important, do not present with symptoms as critical as those of a possible stroke, which necessitates urgent intervention.
4. A healthcare provider is discussing recommendations for daily nutrient intake during pregnancy with a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation. For which of the following nutrients should the healthcare provider instruct the client to increase intake during pregnancy?
- A. Vitamin E
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Fiber
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium. During pregnancy, it is essential to increase calcium intake as it is crucial for fetal bone development and to prevent maternal bone loss. Adequate calcium supports the increased needs of both the mother and the developing baby. Vitamin E, Vitamin D, and fiber are also important nutrients, but the specific nutrient that needs to be increased during pregnancy for bone development is calcium. Vitamin E is an antioxidant that plays a role in protecting cells from damage, Vitamin D helps with calcium absorption and bone health, and fiber is important for digestive health but does not specifically need to be increased during pregnancy for bone development.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause drowsiness
- B. It has no side effects
- C. It is a pain reliever
- D. It can be taken with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.
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