Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Eat a light breakfast on the day of the procedure.
• B. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure.
• C. Avoid all liquids for 24 hours before the procedure.
• D. You can continue taking your blood thinners until the day of the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client scheduled for a colonoscopy is to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure. This solution helps cleanse the colon, ensuring clear visualization during the colonoscopy procedure. Choice A is incorrect because a light breakfast is usually recommended the day before the procedure, not on the day of the colonoscopy. Choice C is incorrect as it is important to stay hydrated and follow specific instructions regarding liquid intake. Choice D is incorrect as blood thinners may need to be adjusted or stopped before the colonoscopy to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure.

2. An outcome for treatment of peripheral vascular disease is, 'The client will have decreased venous congestion.' What client behavior would indicate to the nurse that this outcome has been met?

• A. Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.
• B. Avoids trauma and irritation to skin.
• C. Wears protective shoes.
• D. Quits smoking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoids prolonged sitting or standing.' In clients with peripheral vascular disease, decreased venous congestion is a desired outcome. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing helps improve venous return and reduces congestion in the lower extremities, contributing to the achievement of this treatment goal.

3. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Based on the symptoms of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of a normal common bile duct but dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, the most likely diagnosis is primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with different imaging findings, often showing strictures and beading of the bile ducts. Gallstones typically cause obstruction in the biliary system, leading to different symptoms and imaging findings. Pancreatic cancer would present with different clinical features and imaging characteristics.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
• B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
• C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
• D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pre-procedure instruction the nurse should provide to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for a renal biopsy is to avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This instruction is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure, as anticoagulants can increase the chance of bleeding complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining a low-protein diet, drinking plenty of fluids, or taking routine medications with water are not specifically related to reducing the risk of bleeding associated with a renal biopsy in a client with CKD.

5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fruity breath odor.
• B. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL.
• C. Deep, rapid respirations.
• D. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.

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