Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer digoxin without any modifications
• B. Administer the medication at a lower dose
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.

2. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased blood pressure
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Normal heart rate
• D. Elevated oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

3. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has a surgical wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?

• A. Use sterile gloves only as necessary
• B. Restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field while pouring the solution into the dressing tray
• C. Keep the dressing tray on a nearby surface
• D. Avoid speaking during the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field while pouring the solution into the dressing tray. Any contact with the sterile field by non-sterile items makes the field contaminated and requires restarting the procedure to maintain sterility. Choice A is incorrect because sterile gloves should always be used during a sterile procedure to prevent contamination. Choice C is incorrect as the dressing tray should be placed on a sterile surface, not on the client's bed, to maintain sterility. Choice D is also incorrect as talking during the procedure does not necessarily lead to contamination if proper aseptic technique is maintained.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to take an iron supplement.
• B. I will consume foods high in phosphorus.
• C. I will reduce my intake of carbohydrates.
• D. I will monitor my blood glucose level daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.

5. A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

• A. Propofol
• B. Pancuronium
• C. Promethazine
• D. Pentoxifylline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used to induce moderate sedation for procedures like a colonoscopy. This medication provides rapid onset and recovery, making it an ideal choice for such procedures. Choice B, Pancuronium, is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during surgery and would not be appropriate for sedation during a colonoscopy. Choice C, Promethazine, is an antihistamine used for nausea and motion sickness, not for anesthesia. Choice D, Pentoxifylline, is a medication used to improve blood flow in patients with circulation problems and is not indicated for anesthesia during a colonoscopy.

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