a client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 30 meql which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.

2. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with schizophrenia, poor problem-solving ability is a common assessment finding due to impaired cognitive function associated with the disorder. This impairment can manifest as difficulties in decision-making and problem-solving. Choice A, decreased level of consciousness, is not a typical finding in schizophrenia. Choice B, inability to identify common objects, is more indicative of conditions like dementia rather than schizophrenia. Choice D, preoccupation with somatic disturbances, is more characteristic of somatic symptom disorder rather than schizophrenia.

4. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) immunization to a child. Which is a contraindication for this vaccine?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent blood transfusion. A recent blood transfusion can interfere with the effectiveness of the MMR vaccine, making it a contraindication. Choice B, allergy to penicillin, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, minor acute illness, is not a contraindication unless the child has a moderate to severe illness. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a contraindication as long as the child does not have a moderate to severe febrile illness.

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