Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Perform continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Apply a nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.

2. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

3. A client with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving thrombolytic therapy. The nurse monitors the client for which potential complication associated with this therapy?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bleeding
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy is associated with an increased risk of bleeding due to its mechanism of action in dissolving blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of hemorrhage, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stools. Hypertension is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Hyperkalemia and hypoglycemia are also not typically associated with this therapy.

4. When providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the evening.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of grapefruit juice.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin is to take the medication in the evening. Atorvastatin is more effective when taken at night because cholesterol synthesis is higher during this time. This timing helps optimize the drug's cholesterol-lowering effects and enhances its overall efficacy in managing lipid levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking atorvastatin with food can decrease its absorption, grapefruit juice can interact with atorvastatin leading to increased side effects, and there is no specific need to avoid dairy products while on atorvastatin unless instructed otherwise by the healthcare provider.

5. A client with myocardial infarction (MI) has been transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the general medical unit with cardiac monitoring via telemetry. The nurse assisting in caring for the client expects to note which type of activity prescribed?

• A. Strict bed rest for 24 hours
• B. Bathroom privileges and self-care activities
• C. Unrestricted activities because the client is monitored
• D. Unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances less than 200 feet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After being transferred from the CCU to the general medical unit with cardiac monitoring, the client with MI is typically prescribed bathroom privileges and self-care activities. This approach allows for gradual recovery and mobility while still being closely monitored, promoting the client's overall well-being and independence. Choice A, strict bed rest for 24 hours, is too restrictive and not recommended for MI patients as it can lead to complications like deep vein thrombosis. Choice C, unrestricted activities, is also not appropriate as MI patients usually require monitoring and gradual re-introduction to activities. Choice D, unsupervised hallway ambulation with distances less than 200 feet, may be too strenuous for a client who just got transferred from the CCU and needs a more gradual approach to activity.

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