Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Perform continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Apply a nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to ensure correct use?

• A. Inhale deeply and slowly after activating the MDI.
• B. Hold the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication.
• C. Rinse the mouth immediately after using the MDI.
• D. Exhale fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inhaling deeply and slowly after activating the MDI is the correct instruction to ensure effective delivery of the medication to the lungs. This technique helps the medication reach the lower airways where it can be most beneficial in managing COPD symptoms. Inhaling too quickly or not deeply enough may result in improper drug delivery and reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) may not be necessary and could cause discomfort without additional benefits. Rinsing the mouth immediately after using the MDI (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Exhaling fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth (Choice D) is not ideal as it may result in inadequate medication delivery to the lungs.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client with rheumatoid arthritis prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 1,200/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
• D. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 1,200/mm³ indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of methotrexate that can lead to increased risk of infections. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not represent significant concerns related to methotrexate therapy in this context.

4. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

Similar Questions